Hydrosalpinges adversely affect markers of endometrial receptivity

While in-vitro fertilization (IVF) was initially developed in women with tubal factor infertility, recent clinical studies have suggested that the presence of hydrosalpinges lowers implantation and pregnancy rates. We postulated that these hydrosalpinges cause impaired endometrial receptivity. A total of 103 women with hydrosalpinges were prospectively evaluated, and compared with 55 infertile and 44 fertile controls. All women had endometrial biopsies during the window of implantation, analysed by conventional histological criteria, and also stained for three integrin markers of endometrial receptivity (alpha1beta1, alpha4beta1 and alpha vbeta3). Women with hydrosalpinges (cases) expressed significantly less of the alpha vbeta3 integrin compared with controls. There was no difference in expression of alpha1beta1 or alpha4beta1 among groups. A significantly greater number of cases had out of phase histology and missing alpha vbeta3 (type I defects) and absent integrin expression despite normal histological maturation (type II) defects, compared with controls. Of 20 women with impaired endometrial receptivity who were also biopsied after hydrosalpinx surgery, 70% demonstrated increased alpha vbeta3 expression. Seventy-seven percent of type I and 57% of type II defects were corrected postoperatively. Using markers of endometrial receptivity, this study demonstrates that inflammatory hydrosalpinges have an adverse effect on endometrial receptivity, which in some cases may be overcome by surgical treatment of the hydrosalpinx.      

bcl-2 transgene expression promotes survival and reduces proliferation of CD3-CD4-CD8- T cell progenitors

Proliferative expansion and apoptotic cell death play prominent roles in T cell development. The molecular control of cell cycle progression and apoptosis appear to be inter-connected since the Bcl-2 protein can inhibit apoptosis and slow cell cycle progression in cortical thymocytes and mature T cells, particularly during the transition from the quiescent state into the cell cycle. Here the impact of bcl-2 transgene expression on CD3-CD4-CD8- T cell progenitors was assessed. Bcl-2 enhanced the survival of these progenitors at all of the four major differentiation stages, CD25- CD44+ (pro-T1), CD25 + CD44+ (pro- T2), CD25 + CD44- (pro-T3) and CD25-CD44- (pro-T4). However, it reduced cell cycling and slowed turnover only in the pro-T4 subset. From an analysis of bcl-2 transgenic mice expressing a TCR transgene or bearing a mutation in the scid or rag-1 gene we conclude that Bcl-2 inhibits proliferation only of T cell progenitors that are activated via the pre- TCR, not those stimulated via c-Kit and the IL-7 receptor.      

Mutations in the Ca(2+)-sensing receptor gene cause autosomal dominant and sporadic hypoparathyroidism

Parathyroid hormone secretion is negatively regulated by a 7- transmembrane domain, G-protein coupled Ca(2+)-sensing receptor. We hypothesized that activating mutations in this receptor might cause autosomal dominant hypoparathyroidism (ADHP). Consistent with this hypothesis, we identified, in two families with ADHP, heterozygous missense mutations in the Ca(2+)-sensing receptor gene that cosegregated with the disorder. None of 50 normal controls had either mutation. We also identified a de novo, missense Ca(2+)-sensing receptor mutation in a child with severe sporadic hypoparathyroidism. The amino acid substitution in one ADHP family affected the N-terminal, extracellular domain of the receptor. The other mutations involved the transmembrane region. Unlike patients with acquired hypoparathyroidism, patients with these mutations had hypercalciuria even at low serum calcium concentrations. Their greater hypercalciuria presumably reflected activation of Ca(2+)-sensing receptors in kidney cells, where the receptor negatively regulates calcium reabsorption. This augmented hypercalciuria increases the risk of renal complications and thus has implications for the choice of therapy.      

Symptomatic peripheral arterial disease: the value of a validated questionnaire and a clinical decision rule

BACKGROUND: If a validated questionnaire, when applied to patients reporting with symptoms of intermittent claudication, could adequately discriminate between those with and without peripheral arterial disease, GPs could avoid the diagnostic measurement of the ankle brachial index. AIM: To investigate the Edinburgh Claudication Questionnaire (ECQ) in general practice and to develop a clinical decision rule based on risk factors to enable GPs to easily assess the likelihood of peripheral arterial disease. DESIGN OF STUDY: An observational study. SETTING: General practice in The Netherlands. METHOD: This observational study included patients of > or =55 years visiting their GP for symptoms suggestive of intermittent claudication or with one risk factor. The ECQ and the ankle brachial index were performed. The prevalence of peripheral arterial disease, defined as an ankle brachial index <0.9, was related to risk factors using logistic regression analyses, on which a clinical decision rule was developed and related to the presence of peripheral arterial disease. RESULTS: Of the 4790 included patients visiting their GP with symptoms suggestive of intermittent claudication, 4527 were eligible for analyses. The prevalence of peripheral arterial disease in this group was 48.3%. The sensitivity of the ECQ was only 56.2%. The prevalence of peripheral arterial disease in a clinical decision rule that included age, male sex, smoking, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and a positive ECQ, increased from 14% in the lowest to 76% in the highest category. CONCLUSION: This study indicates that the ECQ alone has an inadequate diagnostic value in detecting patients with peripheral arterial disease. The ankle brachial index should be performed to diagnose peripheral arterial disease in patients with complaints suggestive of intermittent claudication, although our clinical decision rule could help to differentiate between extremely high and lower prevalence of peripheral arterial disease.     

Exome sequencing reveals a novel COL2A1 mutation implicated in multiple epiphyseal dysplasia

Mutations in the COMP, COL9A1, COL9A2, COL9A3, MATN3, and SLC26A2 genes cause approximately 70% of multiple epiphyseal dysplasia (MED) cases. The genetic changes involved in the etiology of the remaining cases are still unknown, suggesting that other genes contribute to MED development. Our goal was to identify a mutation causing an autosomal dominant form of MED in a large multigenerational family. Initially, we excluded all genes known to be associated with autosomal dominant MED by using microsatellite and SNP markers. Follow‐up with whole‐exome sequencing analysis revealed a mutation c.2032G>A (p.Gly678Arg) in the COL2A1 gene (NCBI Reference Sequence: NM_001844.4), which co‐segregated with the disease phenotype in this family, manifested by severe hip dysplasia and osteoarthritis. One of the affected family members had a double‐layered patella, which is frequently seen in patients with autosomal recessive MED caused by DTDST mutations and sporadically in the dominant form of MED caused by COL9A2 defect.     

Kinetics of lymphocyte transformation in mice immunized with viable avirulent forms of Cryptococcus neoformans.

A murine model was developed to study the cell-mediated immune response of mice immunized with one of two live, avirulent forms of Cryptococcus neoformans: a nonencapsulated mutant and a thinly encapsulated pseudohyphal variant. A lymphocyte transformation assay was used to evaluate the cellular response of control and sensitized spleen cells after in vitro incubation with three merthiolate-killed whole-cell antigens of C. neoformans. An antigen-to-spleen cell ratio of 10:1 and 5 days of incubation of antigen-spleen cell mixtures were established as optimal conditions for maximum lymphocyte transformation. Maximum responses occurred from 2 to 3 weeks after the last of eight weekly intraperitoneal inoculations of C. neoformans. This assay provided an accurate, reproducible method of studying cell-mediated immunity to C. neoformans, and applications to the study of cryptococcal pathogenesis are proposed.     

Estimate of Burden and Direct Healthcare Cost of Infectious Waterborne Disease in the United States

Provision of safe drinking water in the United States is a great public health achievement. However, new waterborne disease challenges have emerged (e.g., aging infrastructure, chlorine-tolerant and biofilm-related pathogens, increased recreational water use). Comprehensive estimates of the health burden for all water exposure routes (ingestion, contact, inhalation) and sources (drinking, recreational, environmental) are needed. We estimated total illnesses, emergency department (ED) visits, hospitalizations, deaths, and direct healthcare costs for 17 waterborne infectious diseases. About 7.15 million waterborne illnesses occur annually (95% credible interval [CrI] 3.88 million–12.0 million), results in 601,000 ED visits (95% CrI 364,000–866,000), 118,000 hospitalizations (95% CrI 86,800–150,000), and 6,630 deaths (95% CrI 4,520–8,870) and incurring US $3.33 billion (95% CrI 1.37 billion–8.77 billion) in direct healthcare costs. Otitis externa and norovirus infection were the most common illnesses. Most hospitalizations and deaths were caused by biofilm-associated pathogens (nontuberculous mycobacteria, Pseudomonas, Legionella), costing US $2.39 billion annually.     

Propofol anaesthesia reduces early post-operative emesis after paediatric strabismus surgery

Propofol anaesthesia may reduce postoperative emesis. The purpose of this study was to compare the incidence of emesis after propofol anaesthesia with and without nitrous oxide, compared with thiopentone and halothane anaesthesia, in hospital and up to 24 hr postoperatively, in outpatient paediatric patients after strabismus surgery. Seventy-five ASA class I or II, unpremedicated patients, aged 2–12 yr were randomly assigned to one of three groups: Thiopentone, 6.0 mg · kg^{? 1} iv induction followed by halothane and N₂O/O₂ for maintenance (T/H); propofol for induction, followed by propofol and oxygen for maintenance (P/O₂); and propofol for iv induction, followed by propofol infusion and N₂O/O₂ for maintenance (P/N₂O). All received vecuronium, controlled ventilation, and acetaminophen pr. Morphine was given as needed for postoperative analgesia. There were no differences in age, weight, number of eye muscles operated upon, duration of anaesthesia or surgery. The P/N₂O group (255 ± 80 μg· kg^{? 1}· min^{? 1}) received less propofol than the P/O₂ group (344 ± 60 μg · kg^{? 1}· min^{? 1}) (P ≤ 0.0001) and had shorter extubation (P < 0.001) and recovery (P < 0.01) times. Emesis in the hospital, in both the P/N₂O (4.0%) and P/O₂ group (4.0%) was less than in the T/H group (32%) (P < 0.01). Antiemetics were required in four patients in the T/H group (16.0%). Overall emesis after surgery was not different among the groups: T/H (48%), P/O₂ (28%) and P/N₂O (42%). The use of propofol anaesthesia with and without N₂O decreased only early emesis. This supports the concept of a short-acting, specific antiemetic effect of propofol.     

The acoustic fields of the Wolf electrohydraulic lithotripter

Electric sparks are used as the sources for both intra- and extracorporeal shock wave lithotripters. Upon ignition, a pressure pulse, headed by a shock, is generated that propagates as a spherically diverging wave. Simultaneously, a bubble is created that, in the case of the Wolf Model 2137.50 Electrohydraulic Lithotripter, expands to a radius of approximately 5 mm and collapses spontaneously after approximately 1 msec. Upon rebound, the bubble generates a second pressure pulse that is almost equal in amplitude and acoustic energy to the first shock wave. Measured pressures are almost entirely positive and decrease in amplitude with the reciprocal of the distance from the source. For the Wolf lithotripter at its maximum output setting, the pressure amplitude at a distance of 3 cm from the spark is typically 3 MPa.