Barrett’s esophagus: Review of natural history and comparative efficacy of endoscopic and surgical therapies

Barrett's esophagus (BE) is the precursor to esophageal adenocarcinoma (EAC). Progression to cancer typically occurs in a stepwise fashion through worsening dysplasia and ultimately, invasive neoplasia. Established EAC with deep involvement of the esophageal wall and/or metastatic disease is invariably associated with poor long-term survival rates. This guides the rationale of surveillance of Barrett’s in an attempt to treat lesions at an earlier, and potentially curative stage. The last two decades have seen a paradigm shift in management of Barrett’s with rapid expansion in the role of endoscopic eradication therapy (EET) for management of dysplastic and early neoplastic BE, and there have been substantial changes to international consensus guidelines for management of early BE based on evolving evidence. This review aims to assist the physician in the therapeutic decision-making process with patients by comprehensive review and summary of literature surrounding natural history of Barrett’s by histological stage, and the effectiveness of interventions in attenuating the risk posed by its natural history. Key findings were as follows. Non-dysplastic Barrett’s is associated with extremely low risk of progression, and interventions cannot be justified. The annual risk of cancer progression in low grade dysplasia is between 1%-3%; EET can be offered though evidence for its benefit remains confined to highly select settings. High-grade dysplasia progresses to cancer in 5%-10% per year; EET is similarly effective to and less morbid than surgery and should be routinely performed for this indication. Risk of nodal metastases in intramucosal cancer is 2%-4%, which is comparable to operative mortality rate, so EET is usually preferred. Submucosal cancer is associated with nodal metastases in 14%-41% hence surgery remains standard of care, except for select situations.     

Better education for better health care

In India, all national nutrition programs and activities are carried out by staff at the primary health centers under the leadership of medical officers. A study of 114 of these officers from 80 primary health centers in rural districts of Andhra Pradesh State was undertaken to assess their knowledge and performance, particularly with regard to nutrition and related matters. Scores were expressed in percentages, with under 50% considered poor, 50-75% satisfactory, and over 75% good. The highest score 67.7% was obtained on knowledge of nutrition and related areas, and the lowest, 19.7% was for the participant's awareness of their own job responsibilities. Although overall theoretical knowledge on nutrition and related matters was satisfactory, significant gaps existed. A majority were ignorant as to how many people were covered by their centers and the numbers of staff in different categories, suggesting little attention was being given to planning and implementation of various services. Only 23% were aware of their own responsibilities regarding nutrition, and only 16% mentioned teaching nutrition during their training programs. The conclusion is that the medical education system must be better coordinated with the health care delivery infrastructure. Medical undergraduates need more exposure to Practical aspects of health care in rural communities, managerial aspects of work in primary health centers, and programs with a stronger nutrition component. In addition, refresher courses must be offered, and the problem of overburdening the medical officers must be dealt with.     

Epidemiology of gastro-intestinal and respiratory tract diseases in rural areas of Varanasi (India)

The pattern of gastro-intestinal (GIT) and Respiratory tract (RTI) diseases in rural areas of the Varanasi district, U.P. (India) was studied from the outpatient (OPD) attendance between July 1985 to June 1986. Out of a total of new patients, 19.71% had respiratory diseases in contrast to 27.9% with GIT disease. A decreasing trend was observed in attendance rates as age advanced. The difference in age distribution of males and females was statistically significant. The attendance rates for GIT diseases were higher in female (29.16%) than in males (25.16%) whereas in RTI, the rates were higher in males (19.39%) than in females (18.77%). The attendance rate was found to be higher in rainy season (23.59%) followed by summer (14.50%). Diarrhoea (15.44%) and upper (URTI) respiratory tract infection (19.93%) occupied the major recorded episodes.     

Acute Cellular Rejection Predominated by Monocytes Is a Severe Form of Rejection in Human Renal Recipients With or Without Campath-1H (Alemtuzumab) Induction Therapy

Campath-1H has been used successfully for induction and has resulted in a low rate of acute cellular rejection (ACR) in renal transplantation in combination with various postoperative immunosuppression regimens. This study was undertaken to investigate the extent of monocyte involvement in ACR, with or without Campath-1H induction. We found that monocytes represented the majority of inflammatory cells in grades Ib or higher ACR, but not with Ia type of ACR, regardless of the status of Campath-1H induction. Cases of ACR, following Campath-1H induction, appear to demonstrate a 'pure form' of monocytic ACR, whereas monocytes were mixed with many other types of inflammatory cells in the cases of ACR in the absence of Campath-1H induction. In addition with Campath-1H induction, the cases of monocyte-predominant ACR were found to uniformly exhibit a good response to corticosteroid treatment. We conclude that monocyte-predominate ACR may represent a severe form of rejection, with or without Campath-1H treatment.     

Chronic subdural haematoma associated with nontraumatic CSF rhinorrhea: a management challenge.

We report an unusual case of chronic subdural haematoma (CSH) associated with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) rhinorrhoea emphasizing the importance of managing both conditions simultaneously. A 59- year-old man presented with watery discharge from the right nostril, of 2 months duration. MRI of the brain showed a CSH in the left fronto-parietal region with significant mass effect. There was an arachnoidocoele with a defect in the planum sphenoidale. He first underwent a burr hole evacuation of the CSH following which the CSF rhinorrhea did not subside, even with bed rest. Transnasal endoscopic closure of the CSF dural fistula was done. On the first post-operative day, he was disoriented and a CT scan showed a recollection of the subdural haematoma that required repeat evacuation. The patient was asymptomatic at discharge. To our knowledge this is the first reported case of CSF rhinorrhoea associated with CSH. Simultaneous closure of the CSF dural fistula at the time of evacuation of a coexisting CSH would be the optimal management.     

Implementation of a successful endovascular surgical program in a non-teaching tertiary-care centre in Ontario.

Endovascular surgical techniques have become an accepted standard of care for high-risk patients with abdominal aortic aneurysms and for certain patients with thoracic aortic pathology and peripheral arterial aneurysms. In Canada, endovascular surgery has been concentrated in tertiary-care academic teaching institutions. As the technology evolves and as expertise advances, the applicability of endovascular techniques will expand. With time, and as the demand for endovascular techniques rises, this expertise will increasingly need to be delivered by dedicated vascular surgical services in nonteaching institutions. The dissemination of endovascular surgical capabilities represent a unique challenge. We report the successful implementation of an endovascular surgical program in a tertiary-care nonteaching institution using a carefully planned preceptorship model. We review our initial 49 cases and discuss 6 factors important to the successful establishment of an endovascular surgical service: education, teamwork, strict selection of patients, use of a single stent-graft manufacturer, industry support and endovascular preceptorship. Our experience may be used as a model by other institutions in Canada.     

Reverse coitus: mechanism of urethral injury in male partner

Reverse coitus, a rarely used sexual position, makes the male urethra more vulnerable to injury from the pubic arch and symphysis pubis of the female partner. Severe pain, bleeding and immediate detumescence were observed in 3 patients. The lesion usually occurred at the fossa navicularis, responded well to conservative management and did not hinder micturition. Potency has been well preserved in all 3 patients.     

Receiver Operating Characteristic (ROC) to Determine Cut-Off Points of Biomarkers in Lung Cancer Patients

The role of biomarkers in disease prognosis continues to be an important investigation in many cancer studies. In order for these biomarkers to have practical application in clinical decision making regarding patient treatment and follow-up, it is common to dichotomize patients into those with low vs. high expression levels. In this study, receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves, area under the curve (AUC) of the ROC, sensitivity, specificity, as well as likelihood ratios were calculated to determine levels of growth factor biomarkers that best differentiate lung cancer cases versus control subjects. Selected cut-off points for p185^erbB-2 and EGFR membrane appear to have good discriminating power to differentiate control tissues versus uninvolved tissues from patients with lung cancer (AUC = 89% and 90%, respectively); while AUC increased to at least 90% for selected cut-off points for p185^erbB-2 membrane, EGFR membrane, and FASE when comparing between control versus carcinoma tissues from lung cancer cases. Using data from control subjects compared to patients with lung cancer, we presented a simple and intuitive approach to determine dichotomized levels of biomarkers and validated the value of these biomarkers as surrogate endpoints for cancer outcome.     

Multiple B- and T-cell epitopes on a major allergen of Kentucky Bluegrass pollen.

The B- and T-cell epitopes of a recombinant grass allergen, rKBG60, were delineated using a set of overlapping synthetic peptides. Direct binding by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) utilizing serum pools led to the identification of 13 murine immunoglobulin-, and nine to 13 human IgG- and five to seven human IgE-reactive overlapping peptides. Of the peptides which bound to human IgE antibodies, all but three peptides bound to human and/or murine IgG antibodies. Furthermore, eight out of 12 synthetic peptides induced antigen-specific antibodies in mice, suggesting that these peptides contained epitopes that recognized and/or induced T cells. These results, in conjunction with cross-recognition of different peptides at the C-terminus of rKBG60 by antibodies to neighbouring or non-overlapping peptides suggest that the C-terminus of this antigen represents a dominant antigenic and allergenic site. Peripheral blood mononuclear cell (PBMC) proliferation studies using these synthetic peptides for 13 grass allergic individuals indicated that seven potential human T-cell epitopes exist on this allergen. Taken together, the results demonstrate that multiple B- and T-cell epitopes exist on this major group of grass allergens, the majority of which are localized at the C-terminus of this antigen.