Addressing risk management difficulties in children with food allergies

Risk is a concept inherent in every medical procedure. It can be defined as the probability of an adverse event in a defined population over a specified period of time. In the frame of food allergy management, it might be related to a diagnostic procedure, a treatment, or the consumption of foods. The risk of an adverse event can also be augmented by individual factors. This rostrum article discusses various aspects faced by children with food allergies in the light of risk, and their practical implications. Identifying personal risks for severe reaction, such as unstable asthma, and correcting them whenever possible also contribute to a reduction of the risk inherent to food allergy. Among the facets discussed, oral food challenges (OFC) are the most common diagnostic procedures implying an inherent risk. The risk of OFCs can be minimized by correct indication and timing of the test, a safe setting, as well as by ensuring that the patient is otherwise well without potential stressor potentially increasing the risk of a more severe reaction. Oral immunotherapy (OIT) has been studied as a potential treatment for increasing the threshold dose for reaction, and thus reducing the risk of accidental reaction. Nevertheless, the procedure is not devoid of risk as the patients may and do often react during the course of the procedure. Ingestion of trace amounts in processed foods, mainly in community settings such as restaurants, schools, or day care, represents a potential risk of reactions, although for a minority of patients. Precautionary allergen labeling (PAL) is a widespread strategy to reduce the potential risk of reactions due to traces. However, PAL is currently inefficient due to inconsistent labeling, also not indicating a clear maximum amount possibly present in the manufactured food. Finally, cost-effectiveness needs to be considered in risk management, as many risk reduction procedures are clearly not cost-effective.     

Differential effects of within-day continuous vs. transient dopamine D2 receptor occupancy in the development of vacuous chewing movements (VCMs) in rats.

Accumulating evidence suggests that antipsychotics (APs) that lead to sustained blockade of dopamine D(2) receptors are more likely to induce acute extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) compared to APs that only occupy D(2) receptors transiently. It is unclear, however, whether a similar relationship exists for long-term AP-induced motoric side effects like tardive dyskinesia (TD). The objective of this study was to ascertain whether transient (via daily subcutaneous (s.c.) injections) vs continuous (via osmotic minipump) AP-induced D(2) receptor occupancy differentially affects the development of haloperidol-induced vacuous chewing movements (VCMs), an animal model of TD. Six groups of 12 rats received 0.1, 0.25, or 1 mg/kg of haloperidol or vehicle (n=36) via osmotic minipump (to provide within-day sustained) or daily s.c. injection (within-day transient) for 8 weeks. VCMs were measured on a weekly basis and D(2) occupancy levels were measured in vivo using [(3)H]-raclopride at the end of the experiment. Minipump-treated rats developed HAL dose-dependent D(2) occupancies of 0.1 mg/kg/day (57%), 0.25 mg/kg/day (70%), and 1 mg/kg/day (88%). S.C.-treated rats also developed HAL dose-dependent D(2) occupancies of 0.1 mg/kg/day (83% peak, 3% trough), 0.25 mg/kg/day (89% peak, 0% trough), and 1 mg/kg/day (94% peak, 17% trough). A total of 43% of rats given 0.25 and 1 mg/kg/day of HAL via minipump developed high VCMs compared to only 8% of the rats given the same doses via daily s.c. injections. The 0.1 mg/kg dose did not give rise to VCMs beyond vehicle levels regardless of the route of administration. These findings support the contention that D(2) occupancy levels induced by chronic HAL must be high and sustained through the day before significant risk of VCMs, and perhaps also TD, emerges.     

Screening mammography for women 50 years of age and older: practices and trends, 1987

Recently, public and private efforts have been mounted to promote screening mammography. To assess recent trends in the percentage of women 50 years of age and older who have had a screening mammogram, we analyzed data from interviews from women from 33 states who participated in the 1987 Behavioral Risk Factor Surveillance System. Our study group included 8,402 women 50 years of age and older who had visited a physician for a routine checkup in the last year; among these 8,402 women, only 29% reported having had a screening mammogram in the past year. However, of the women in the study group, the percentage who had a screening mammogram in the last year showed a relative increase of 38% during 1987, from 24% for women interviewed in the first quarter of 1987 to 33% for women interviewed in the fourth quarter. However, not all groups of patients benefited equally from the observed trend--the absolute and relative increases in the percentage of women screened were lowest for women who were older, less educated, in low-income groups, and who had poor personal health practices. Although the percentage of women 50 years of age and older who reported being screened increased dramatically during 1987, special efforts are needed to reach the patient groups that are being left behind in the trend toward increased use of screening mammograms.     

Evaluation of the effect of drugs on the cyst form of Toxoplasma gondii.

The cyst form of Toxoplasma gondii has been implicated as a cause of recrudescence of the latent infection in congenitally infected patients and in the immunocompromised host. A method was developed to evaluate the effect of drugs on the cyst form of the parasite and used to evaluate a variety of therapeutic agents. The most active compounds against the cyst form in vitro were arprinocid-N-oxide, azithromycin, and the hydroxynaphthoquinone 566C80.     

INVOLVEMENT OF NON-NMDA AND NMDA RECEPTORS IN GLUTAMATE-INDUCED PRESSOR OR DEPRESSOR RESPONSES OF THE PONS AND MEDULLA

1. Fifty-five intact and six baroreceptor denervated and vagotomized cats of either sex were anaesthetized intraperito-neally with urethane (400 mg/kg) and a-chloralose (40 mg/kg). Responses of the systemic arterial pressure (SAP), mean SAP (MSAP) and sympathetic vertebral nerve (VNA) and renal nerve activities (RNA) were recorded. 2. In intact animals, monosodium L-glutamate (Glu, 0.1 mol/L, 50 nL) was microinjected into pressor areas of the locus coeruleus (LC), gigantocellular tegmental field (GTF), rostral ventrolateral medulla (RVLM) and dorsomedial medulla (DM), and the depressor areas of caudal ventrolateral medulla (CVLM). The induced actions were compared before and after microinjection of either glutamate antagonists, glutamate diethylester (GDEE, 0.5 mol/L, 50–100nL), a competitive AMPA receptor blocker, or 2-amino-5-phosphonovaleric acid (D-AP5, 0.025 mol/L, 50–100 nL), a competitive N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) receptor blocker. GDEE completely blocked the increases of SAP and VNA elicited from all pressor areas. D-AP5 only partially blocked the pressor but slightly blocked VNA and RNA responses from LC, GTF and DM, particularly those from RVLM. Neither GDEE nor D-AP5 blocked the depressor responses of SAP and two nerve activities elicited from CVLM. 3. In baroreceptor denervated animals, NMDA (2 mmol/L, 50–100 nL) and AMPA (0.2 mmol/L, 50–100 nL) were micro-injected into the same pressor areas of GTF, RVLM and DM and the depressor area of CVLM responsive to Glu activation (0.1 mol/L, 30 nL). In RVLM, DM and CVLM, the results of either NMDA or AMPA were similar to those induced by Glu. However, in GTF, microinjection of either NMDA or AMPA did not induce similar responses to Glu. This suggests that the nature of GTF may differ from RVLM and DM. 4. The above results suggest that the Glu-induced pressor responses from LC, GTF, DM and especially RVLM, are primarily mediated through AMPA receptors. The Glu-induced depressor responses from CVLM may not be predominantly mediated by either AMPA or NMDA receptors. 5. In both baroreceptor-intact and -denervated cats stimulation of the pressor areas often produced an increase of VNA and a decrease of RNA, while in the depressor CVLM decreased both VNA and RNA. The VNA, but not RNA were positively correlated with the pressor responses, while both VNA and RNA were positively correlated with the depressor responses. This may suggest that neurons of the sympathetic vertebral and renal nerves are topographically organized in the brain.     

Extended duration of herpes simplex virus DNA in genital lesions detected by the polymerase chain reaction.

To evaluate the utility of the polymerase chain reaction (PCR) for documenting herpes simplex virus (HSV) in persons with reactivated genital lesions viral isolation was compared with a recently developed PCR method. Three women experiencing four episodes of recurrent genital herpes were followed for 10 days per episode with daily examination and duplicate swabs of the lesions, one for HSV culture and one for PCR. HSV type 2 was cultured from three of four episodes and the mean duration of viral isolation from recurrent genital lesions was 2.6 days. PCR detected HSV DNA from lesion swabs during all four episodes, and HSV DNA was positive for an average of 6.8 days. HSV DNA was demonstrated in ulcerative lesions on 15 of 17 days versus 3 of 17 days by viral isolation (P less than .01). HSV PCR became negative when the lesions reepithelialized. These data suggest that PCR is a more sensitive measure of HSV infection than routine viral culture and that PCR detects the presence of HSV at times when culture is negative.     

Proximal femoral focal deficiency: radiologic analysis of 49 cases

Proximal femoral focal deficiency, an uncommon congenital anomaly, necessitates early radiologic classification for surgical planning and treatment. Objective radiographic criteria, including femoral length index, acetabular depth index, acetabular angle index, and shape of the proximal femur were determined in 49 patients before cartilaginous ossification of the femoral capital epiphysis; final classification was based on follow-up radiographs or findings at arthrography or surgery. These parameters were analyzed to determine the accuracy and contributions of each in classification. Correct classification into one of three groups was possible in 86% of cases with use of three of the parameters: femoral length index, acetabular depth index, and shape of the proximal femur. The acetabular angle was found to contribute insignificantly to classification. Magnetic resonance imaging, used in only one case, depicted the nonossified cartilaginous femoral capital epiphysis, thus obviating the need for invasive diagnostic procedures and facilitating early classification.     

Serum ionic fluoride levels in haemodialysis and continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis patients

High serum fluoride (F-) in patients with chronic renal failure (CRF) and end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is associated with risk of renal osteodystrophy and other bone changes. This study was done to determine F- in normal healthy controls and patients with ESRD on haemodialysis (HD) or peritoneal dialysis (PD). Seventeen healthy controls (12 males, 5 females) and 39 ESRD patients on dialysis (17 males, 22 females) were recruited in the study in a community with 47.4 +/- 3.28 microM/l (range 44-51 microM/l) of F- content in drinking water. Control subjects showed a mean serum F- concentration of 1.08 +/- 0.350 microM/l. Males in control group showed slightly higher F- levels (1.15 +/- 0.334, range 0.55-1.9 microM/l) than females (0.92 +/- 0.370, range 0.6-1.5 microM/l). Mean serum F- concentration did not correlate significantly with age and sex among control subjects, whereas such correlation was observed in patients with ESRD on dialysis. Mean serum F- concentration was significantly higher in patients on dialysis (2.67 +/- 1.09, range 0.8-5.2 microM/l) than normal controls. When grouped according to sex, the mean serum F- concentration in males (3.05 +/- 1.04, range 1.8-5.2 microM/l) was significantly higher than females (2.38 +/- 1.08, range 0.8-5.2 microM/l). When patients were grouped according to age, it was observed that F- concentration was significantly higher in patients with age groups 21-70 (2.86 +/- 1.05) than those with age group 13-20 years (1.42 +/- 0.531). Thus F- concentration correlated with age and sex, being higher in males and above 20 years. Despite appreciable clearance of F- (39-90%) across the peritoneum, patients on CAPD showed higher serum F- concentration than those on HD (3.1 +/- 1.97 vs 2.5 +/- 1.137 microM/l). Of the total 39 patients on dialysis 39% had their serum F- concentration above 3.0 microM/l, posing the risk of renal osteodystrophy.