Experience of expandable metallic stents for central airway obstruction

The aim of this study was to investigate retrospectively the efficacy of expandable metallic stents (EMSs) for severe respiratory distress in patients with central airway obstruction. Twenty patients with central airway obstructions were treated with an EMS. An intraluminal stricture was present in 15 and an extraluminal stricture in 5 patients. Of the 15 patients with intraluminal stenosis, 11 exhibited symptomatic improvement. All 11 patients had tumor infiltration occupying less than 50% of the endoluminal diameter. The other four patients with intraluminal stenosis had tumor infiltration occupying > 50% of the endoluminal diameter and demonstrated no improvement. All five patients with extraluminal stenosis were improved. EMS is useful for an extraluminal stricture in the central airway and the effect of EMS for intraluminal stenosis is related to the degree of infiltration and of tumor progression itself.      

Calciphylaxis – a topical overview

'Calciphylaxis', a calcification syndrome associated with ischaemic cutaneous necrosis, is acquired naturally in humans in disease states. It is a life and limb-threatening complication, usually observed in patients with renal disease and secondary hyperparathyroidism, but known to occur in the absence of renal or parathyroid disease. The reported mortality rate, which ranges from 60-80%, relates to wound infection, sepsis and organ failure. It is a small-vessel vasculopathy, which is estimated to occur in about 4% of haemodialysis patients. Clinically, violaceous, reticulate areas of cutaneous necrosis and eschar may be evident, particularly in the extremities. In addition to the clinical picture, a raised calcium phosphorous product, an elevated parathyroid hormone level, radiographic evidence of vessel and soft-tissue calcification and the finding of mural calcification affecting small arteries and arterioles on histopathology help to confirm the diagnosis of this entity which generally has a poor prognosis. A high index of suspicion and an active multidisciplinary management approach, with rigorous attention to wound care and prevention of sepsis, are vital in the management of these patients. In this overview, we discuss the pathophysiology, clinical features and associations, risk factors, diagnosis and management issues relating to calciphylaxis.     

MR imaging of renal cell carcinoma: associations among signal intensity, tumor enhancement, and pathologic findings

The purpose of this study was to compare the MR characteristics of renal cell carcinomas against histologic findings and to assess the correlations among signal intensity, tumor enhancement, and pathologic findings. Fifty-four patients (56 lesions) were examined by MR imaging and then underwent partial or radical nephrectomy. The pathologic diagnosis of all lesions was renal cell carcinoma. All MR examinations were performed as dynamic studies using the same 1.5-T scanner. MR characteristics were compared against pathologic findings after resection, and the correlations among signal intensity, tumor enhancement, and pathologic findings were then assessed. A significant correlation was observed between tumor grade and tumor enhancement, with G3 lesions tending to show little enhancement. Regardless of the histologic classification, G3 tumors were found to contain highly heterotypic cancer cells and very few vessels by histopathologic examination. No significant correlations were noted between the other MR characteristics and pathologic findings. Renal cell carcinomas showing little enhancement tend to be highly malignant lesions based on the pathologic findings. Special consideration is required for these tumors with regard to the selection of surgical intervention and follow-up observation.     

Differential diagnosis of adrenal masses by chemical shift and dynamic gadolinium enhanced MR imaging

Chemical shift MRI is widely used for identifying adenomas, but it is not a perfect method. We determined whether combined dynamic MRI methods can lead to improved diagnostic accuracy. Fifty-seven adrenal masses were examined by chemical shift and dynamic MR imaging using 2 MR systems. The masses included 38 adenomas and 19 non-adenomas. In chemical shift MRI studies, the signal intensity index (SI) was calculated, and the lesions classified into 5 types in the dynamic MRI studies. Of the 38 adenomas studied, 37 had an SI greater than 0. In the dynamic MRI, 34 of 38 adenomas showed a benign pattern (type 1). If the SI for the adenomas in the chemical shift MRI was considered to be greater than 0, the positive predictive value was 0.9, and the negative predictive value was 0.94 and kappa = 0.79. If type 1 was considered to indicate adenomas in the dynamic MRI, the corresponding values were 0.94, 0.81 and kappa = 0.77 respectively. The results obtained when the 2 methods were combined were 1, 0.95 and kappa = 0.96 respectively. The chemical shift MRI was found to be useful for identifying adenomas in most cases. If the adrenal mass had a low SI (0 < SI < 5), dynamic MRI was also found to be helpful for making a differential diagnosis.     

Mutations in the retinal guanylate cyclase (RETGC-1) gene in dominant cone-rod dystrophy

The dominant cone-rod dystrophy gene CORD6 has previously been mapped to within an 8 cM interval on chromosome 17p12-p13. The retinal- specific guanylate cyclase gene (RETGC-1), which maps to within this genetic interval and previously was implicated in Leber's congenital amaurosis, was screened for mutations within this family and in a panel of small families and individuals with various cone and cone- rod dystrophy phenotypes. A missense mutation (E837D) was identified in affected members of the CORD6 family, as well as a second missense mutation (R838C) in three other families with dominant cone-rod dystrophy. RETGC-1 is only the fourth gene to be implicated in cone-rod dystrophy and this is the first report of dominant mutations in this gene.      

Phenotypic switching of in vitro mandibular condylar cartilage during matrix mineralization

In order to analyze the phenotypic conversion of chondrocytes, mandibular condyles of mice and rabbits were cultured under cell and organ culture systems, and then examined by a combination of morphological and biochemical procedures. In organ culture, mandibular condylar cartilage (MCC) obtained from newborn mice began to mineralize from the central zone and then progressively widened towards the peripheral zone. Electron microscopic observations showed that with the increasing duration of the organ culture, chondrocytes at the central zone converted into spindle-shaped osteoblastic cells accompanying the formation of the bone type of thick-banded collagen fibrils. To obtain a better understanding of the chondrocytic conversion, immunolocalizations for type I and type X collagens and osteocalcin (OC) were examined in mouse MCC cells in cell culture. Type X collagen and OC were expressed almost simultaneously at the late stage of culture, and type I collagen was detected along the calcified nodues after the production of these proteins. Northern blot analysis in cell cultures of rabbit MCC indicated that type II collagen and alkaline phosphatase (ALPase) messenger ribonucleic acids (mRNAs) were highly expressed at day 7, but subsequently decreased. In contrast, mRNA for type I collagen was expressed at a low level on day 7 and peaked on day 12. The present results suggest that, morphologically and biochemically, cellular modification in MCC cells under culture conditions occurs at a cellular morphological level and also at marker-gene-expression level.     

Comparison between testosterone oenanthate-induced azoospermia and oligozoospermia in a male contraceptive study. IV. Suppression of endogenous testicular and adrenal androgens

Administration of supraphysiological doses of testosterone to normal men causes inhibition of spermatogenesis, but while most become azoospermic, 30-55% maintain a low rate of spermatogenesis. We have investigated whether there are differences in endogenous androgen production, of testicular and adrenal origin, which may be related to the degree of suppression of spermatogenesis. Thirty-three healthy Caucasian men were given weekly i.m. injections of 200 mg testosterone oenanthate (TE), 18 became azoospermic, while 15 remained oligozoospermic. Urinary excretion of epitestosterone, a specific testicular product, was reduced to <10% of pretreatment values, with no differences between the groups. Similar results were obtained for other markers of testicular steroidogenesis. Urinary and plasma adrenal androgens were also reduced during TE treatment: a statistically significant decrease in both (P < 0.001 and P < 0.05 respectively) was seen in the azoospermic but not oligozoospermic responders. These results suggest that testicular steroidogenesis is decreased to <10% by the administration of supraphysiological doses of exogenous testosterone. Differences in the degree of ongoing steroidogenesis in the testis do not appear to account for incomplete suppression of spermatogenesis, thus differences in androgen metabolism may underlie this heterogeneous response. A small but significant reduction in secretion of adrenal androgens was also detectable, the relevance of which is unclear.