Psychiatric complications of anabolic steroid abuse

The authors review the literature from human and animal studies on the neurochemical and pathological psychiatric effects of supraphysiological doses of anabolic-androgenic steroids (AAS) and discuss the AAS use and abuse patterns, additional drug use patterns, and personality and behavioral characteristics of AAS abusers.     

Retinoblastoma and p53 gene product expression in breast carcinoma: Immunohistochemical analysis and clinicopathologic correlation

We examined 100 breast cancers for retinoblastoma (Rb) and p53 protein expression by immunohistochemistry using the PMG3.245 and PAb 1801 antibodies. We assessed percentages of reactive cells and their intensity, as well as staining patterns. The results were correlated with neu protein reactivity and a panel of variables, including age, tumor size and type, nuclear grade, estrogen receptor/progesterone receptor content, and lymph node status. Retinoblastoma protein negativity, either partial or complete, was noted in 47% of cases. Surprisingly, a relatively stronger Rb reaction was seen in some high nuclear grade tumors. p53 positivity was found in 23% of cases and was a significant predictor of Rb loss. p53 also was correlated with poorly differentiated (nuclear grade III) neoplasms and neu expression but not with negative ER status. Tissue distribution profiles for Rb-negative and p53-positive cells were variable in this series, with both uniform and heterogeneous patterns observed. This suggests that Rb and p53 alterations may represent early or late events in transformation. Our findings further implicate Rb and p53 derangements in mammary oncogenesis.     

Effects of flanking base sequences on 5-bromodeoxyuridine mutagenesis in mammalian cells

The molecular mechanisms of incorporation-dependent, 5-bromodeoxyuridine (BrdU)-induced mutagenesis were analyzed in murine A9 cells that possess a single copy of theEscherchia coli gpt gene integrated into the chromosomal DNA as part of a shuttle vector. Four independently derived GPT^– mutants with single base changes within the integratedgpt gene were utilized in BrdU-induced reversion analyses to test the relative mutability of guanine residues in four different settings: the 5 and 3 guanine residues of a GG doublet, the 3 guanine residue of a GGGG quartet, and the middle guanine residue of a GGG triplet. Two of the mutant lines possessed GG doublet sequences in which a GCAT transition at either guanine residue of the doublet leads to restoration of GPT enzyme activity without restoring wild-type DNA sequence. Both lines were shown to be effectively reverted by BrdU incorporation-dependent mutagenesis, and sequencing of thegpt genes from numerous independently derived revertants of both lines demonstrated that greater than 90% of the revertants arose due to GCAT transitions at the 3 guanine residue of the doublet. BrdU-induced reversion of two additional GPT^– mutant lines demonstrated that the 3 guanine residue of a GGGG quartet is efficiently mutated, while the middle guanine residue of a GGG triplet sequence is at least 10-fold less mutable by BrdU incorporation-dependent mutagenesis than the 3 guanine residue of a GG doublet or GGGG quartet. All four mutant lines tested were equally revertible by treatment with the alkylating agent ethyl methane sulfonate. The results from this study define a sequence-specific mechanism for BrdU-induced, incorporation-dependent mutagenesis and demonstrate the use of reversion analysis for the determination of sequence specific effects at precise sites within a gene.     

Correlation of flunisolide plasma levels to eosinopenic response in humans

Plasma levels of flunisolide were measured in healthy male volunteers after the administration of single doses of the drug by the intravenous, oral, intranasal, and bronchial inhalation routes. The systemic availability of a 1-mg dose orally was only 21%. After a single dose of approximately 0.117 mg intranasally plasma levels ranged up to 1 ng/ml. When 1 mg was administered by bronchial inhalation, peak or near peak plasma levels were recorded at 2 min and remained near this level throughout the first hour before declining at a rate similar to that observed after flunisolide intravenously (plasma ). Gargling with an alcoholic mouthwash immediately after inhalation reduced plasma levels at 30 and 60 min but not earlier, suggesting rate-limiting dissolution of flunisolide in bronchial fluids or rate-limiting diffusion across the mucociliary blanket or pulmonary membrane. The systemic availabilities of the inhaled-mouthwash and inhaled-no mouthwash doses were 32% and 39%, respectively. Systemic potency of flunisolide, measured by eosinopenic response, was oral < inhaled < intravenous and correlated with the systemic availability of flunisolide after drug administration by these three routes. These pharmacokinetic properties of flunisolide are clinically advantageous in that relatively small doses are delivered topically to the target organs, i.e., the nasal mucosa and lungs, whereas a large portion of the dose is swallowed and subsequently extensively metabolized to relatively inactive metabolites.     

Identical allelic losses in mature teratoma and other histologic components of malignant mixed germ cell tumors of the testis

Teratomas of the testis in post-pubertal patients are histologically diverse tumors that often coexist with other types of germ cell tumors. Using laser capture microdissection and loss of heterozygosity analysis, we investigated the clonality of mature teratoma and its relationship to other components of malignant mixed germ cell tumors to gain potential insight into the histogenetic relationship of teratoma with other germ cell tumor components. All 16 patients had mature teratoma as one component of their mixed germ cell tumors. The other histological subtypes included immature teratoma, seminoma, embryonal carcinoma, yolk sac tumor, and choriocarcinoma. Laser-assisted microdissection was performed on the formalin-fixed, paraffin-embedded tissue. Polymerase chain reaction was used to amplify genomic DNA at specific loci on chromosome 1p36.2 (D1S508), 2q22-32 (D2S156), 9p21-22 (D9S162), 11p13 (D11S903), 12q22-23 (D12S1051), and 18q21 (D18S46). Fourteen of 16 (88%) cases showed allelic loss in one or more components of the mixed germ cell tumors. Fourteen of 16 mature teratomas showed allelic loss in at least one of six microsatellite polymorphic markers analyzed. The frequency of allelic loss in mature teratoma was 50% (7 of 14) with D1S508, 33% (5 of 15) with D2S156, 58% (7 of 12) with D9S162, 43% (6 of 14) with D11S903, 20% (3 of 15) with D12S1051, and 33% (5 of 15) with D18S46. Completely concordant allelic loss patterns between mature teratoma and all of the other germ cell tumor components were seen in 10 of 14 tumors in which mature teratoma showed loss of heterozygosity. Our data support the common clonal origin of mature teratoma with other components of malignant mixed germ cell tumors of the testis.     

Overexpression of monocyte chemotactic protein-1/CCL2 in beta-amyloid precursor protein transgenic mice show accelerated diffuse beta-amyloid deposition

Microglia accumulation at the site of amyloid plaques is a strong indication that microglia play a major role in Alzheimer's disease pathogenesis. However, how microglia affect amyloid-beta peptide (Abeta) deposition remains poorly understood. To address this question, we developed a novel bigenic mouse that overexpresses both amyloid precursor protein (APP) and monocyte chemotactic protein-1 (MCP-1; CCL2 in systematic nomenclature). CCL2 expression, driven by the glial fibrillary acidic protein promoter, induced mononuclear phagocyte (MP; monocyte-derived macrophage and microglial) accumulation in the brain. When APP/CCL2 transgenic mice were compared to APP mice, a fivefold increase in Abeta deposition was present despite increased MP accumulation around hippocampal and cortical amyloid plaques. Levels of full-length APP, its C-terminal fragment, and Abeta-degrading enzymes (insulin-degrading enzyme and neprilysin) in APP/CCL2 and APP mice were indistinguishable. Sodium dodecyl sulfate-insoluble Abeta (an indicator of fibrillar Abeta) was increased in APP/CCL2 mice at 5 months of age. Apolipoprotein E, which enhances Abeta deposition, was also increased (2.2-fold) in aged APP/CCL2 as compared to APP mice. We propose that although CCL2 stimulates MP accumulation, it increases Abeta deposition by reducing Abeta clearance through increased apolipoprotein E expression. Understanding the mechanisms underlying these events could be used to modulate microglial function in Alzheimer's disease and positively affect disease outcomes.     

Use of the MGB Eclipse system and SmartCycler PCR for differentiation of Mycobacterium chelonae and M. abscessus

Although accurate in the identification of Mycobacterium species, partial 16S rRNA gene sequencing does not distinguish Mycobacterium chelonae from M. abscessus. Thus, we designed a SmartCycler PCR assay targeting the 16S-to-23S internal transcribed spacer (ITS) region with use of MGB Eclipse probes to distinguish each species. Comparison with PCR-restriction enzyme analysis of a 441-bp fragment of the hsp65 gene resulted in 100% correlation with 25 isolates of M. chelonae and 25 isolates of M. abscessus. ITS PCR performed on 90 consecutive isolates identified by partial 16S rRNA gene sequencing (26 isolates of the M. chelonae-M. abscessus complex and 64 remaining isolates, including Mycobacterium species, Nocardia species, and other aerobic actinomycetes) showed 100% specificity and sensitivity. The ITS PCR assay is accurate and specific, easy to perform, and a good supplemental test when using partial 16S rRNA gene sequencing to identify M. chelonae and M. abscessus.     

The Vi capsular antigen of Salmonella enterica serotype Typhi reduces Toll-like receptor-dependent interleukin-8 expression in the intestinal mucosa

Human infections with nontyphoidal Salmonella serotypes, such as S. enterica serotype Typhimurium, are characterized by a massive neutrophil influx in the colon and terminal ileum. In contrast, neutrophils are scarce in intestinal infiltrates of typhoid fever patients. Here, we show that in S. enterica serotype Typhi, the causative agent of typhoid fever, expression of the Vi capsular antigen reduced expression of the neutrophil chemoattractant interleukin-8 (IL-8) in host cells. Capsulated bacteria elicited IL-8 expression in polarized human epithelial cells (T84) and human macrophage-like cells (THP-1) in vitro at significantly reduced levels compared to noncapsulated bacteria. Experiments with a human cell line (HEK293) transfected with human Toll-like receptors (TLRs) demonstrated that in the presence of TLR5 or TLR4/MD2/CD14, a noncapsulated serotype Typhi mutant was able to induce the expression of IL-8, while this host response was significantly reduced when cells were infected with the capsulated serotype Typhi wild type. The relevance of these in vitro observations for the interaction of serotype Typhi with its human host was further studied ex vivo using human colonic tissue explants. Expression of IL-8 was detected in human colonic tissue explants infected with serotype Typhimurium or a noncapsulated serotype Typhi mutant. In contrast, infection with the serotype Typhi wild type did not elicit IL-8 expression in colonic tissue explants. Collectively, these data suggest that the scarcity of neutrophils in intestinal infiltrates of typhoid fever patients is due to a capsule-mediated reduction of TLR-dependent IL-8 production in the intestinal mucosa.     

Benchmarks of support in internal medicine residency training programs.

PURPOSE: To identify benchmarks of financial and staff support in internal medicine residency training programs and their correlation with indicators of quality. METHOD: A survey instrument to determine characteristics of support of residency training programs was mailed to each member program of the Association of Program Directors of Internal Medicine. Results were correlated with the three-year running average of the pass rates on the American Board of Internal Medicine certifying examination using bivariate and multivariate analyses. RESULTS: Of 394 surveys, 287 (73%) were completed: 74% of respondents were program directors and 20% were both chair and program director. The mean duration as program director was 7.5 years (median = 5), but it was significantly lower for women than for men (4.9 versus 8.1; p =.001). Respondents spent 62% of their time in educational and administrative duties, 30% in clinical activities, 5% in research, and 2% in other activities. Most chief residents were PGY4s, with 72% receiving compensation additional to base salary. On average, there was one associate program director for every 33 residents, one chief resident for every 27 residents, and one staff person for every 21 residents. Most programs provided trainees with incremental educational stipends, meals while oncall, travel and meeting expenses, and parking. Support from pharmaceutical companies was used for meals, books, and meeting expenses. Almost all programs provided meals for applicants, with 15% providing travel allowances and 37% providing lodging. The programs' board pass rates significantly correlated with the numbers of faculty fulltime equivalents (FTEs), the numbers of resident FTEs per office staff FTEs, and the numbers of categorical and preliminary applications received and ranked by the programs in 1998 and 1999. Regression analyses demonstrated three independent predictors of the programs' board pass rates: number of faculty (a positive predictor), percentage of clinical work performed by the program director (a negative predictor), and financial support from pharmaceutical companies (also a negative predictor). CONCLUSIONS: These results identify benchmarks of financial and staff support provided to internal medicine residency programs. Some of these benchmarks are correlated with board pass rate, an accepted indicator of quality in residency training. Program directors and chairs can use this information to identify areas that may benefit from enhanced financial and administrative support.     

Nondetection of the S antigen due to the presence of sodium hypochlorite

Low concentrations of sodium hypochlorite (chlorine bleach) are known to destroy S antigen on intact fresh red blood cells (RBCs). Sodium hypochlorite is commonly used as a disinfectant. We report nondetection of the S antigen in tube and microplate saline indirect antiglobulin testing (SIAT) with a lot of commercial saline utilized in our donor screening and reference laboratories. Known S+s+ RBCs were found to be nonreactive with anti-S by SIAT in our reference laboratory. Our investigation demonstrated the presence of chlorine in the commercial saline. The saline lot was used for several days of donor screening and recall of FFP and platelet concentrates was initiated. Two lots of saline were recalled from blood banks across North America.