Norovirus antivirals: Where are we now?

Human noroviruses inflict a significant health burden on society and are responsible for approximately 699 million infections and over 200 000 estimated deaths worldwide each year. Yet despite significant research efforts, approved vaccines or antivirals to combat this pathogen are still lacking. Safe and effective antivirals are not available, particularly for chronically infected immunocompromised individuals, and for prophylactic applications to protect high-risk and vulnerable populations in outbreak settings. Since the discovery of human norovirus in 1972, the lack of a cell culture system has hindered biological research and antiviral studies for many years. Recent breakthroughs in culturing human norovirus have been encouraging, however, further development and optimization of these novel methodologies are required to facilitate more robust replication levels, that will enable reliable serological and replication studies, as well as advances in antiviral development. In the last few years, considerable progress has been made toward the development of norovirus antivirals, inviting an updated review. This review focuses on potential therapeutics that have been reported since 2010, which were examined across at least two model systems used for studying human norovirus or its enzymes. In addition, we have placed emphasis on antiviral compounds with a defined chemical structure. We include a comprehensive outline of direct-acting antivirals and offer a discussion of host-modulating compounds, a rapidly expanding and promising area of antiviral research.     

Characteristics of Frequent Users of Emergency Medical Services in Singapore

Objectives: This study aims to describe frequent users of Emergency Medical Services (EMS) conveyed to a Singapore tertiary hospital, focusing on a comparison between younger users (age <65) and older users in diagnoses and admission rates. Methods: All patients conveyed by EMS to a tertiary hospital 4 times or more over a 1-year period in 2015 had their EMS ambulance charts and Emergency Department (ED) electronic records retrospectively analyzed (n?=?243), with admission the primary outcome. Results: The 243 frequent users were analyzed with a combined total of 1,705 visits, out of a total of 10,183 patients with 12,839 visits conveyed by EMS to Singapore General Hospital (SGH) in 2015. Younger frequent users (<65 years age) were found to be predominantly male (79.6%, p?=?0.001) and were on average responsible for more visits than elderly frequent users (8.6 vs. 5.7, p?=?0.004). Medical co-morbidities were significantly more prevalent in older users. Younger frequent users were more likely to be smokers (60.2% vs. 22.3%), heavy drinkers (51.3% vs. 8.5%), substance abusers (12.4% vs. 0.8%), and bad debtors (49.6% vs. 20.0%, p?<?0.001). A larger proportion presented with altered mental states (11.7% vs. 5.4%, p?<?0.001) and alcohol related diagnoses (34.7% vs. 5.3%, p?<?0.001). Many were picked up from public areas (45.5% vs. 19.6%, p?<?0.001), and had lower acuity triage scores at both EMS (p?<?0.001) and ED (p?=?0.001). They had lower admission rates (40.5% vs. 78.7%, p?<?0.001) and shorter length of stay (4.3 vs. 5.9 days, p?<?0.001). Univariable and multivariable analysis showed alcohol related diagnoses, history of alcohol abuse and lower triage scores were less likely to require admissions. Conclusion: Frequent EMS users consume a disproportionate amount of healthcare resources. Two broad subgroups of patients were identified: younger patients with social issues and older patients with multiple medical conditions. EMS usage by older patients was significantly associated with higher rates of admission     

Delayed enhancement magnetic resonance imaging predicts response to cardiac resynchronization therapy in patients with intraventricular dyssynchrony.

OBJECTIVES: We evaluated the ability of delayed enhancement magnetic resonance imaging (DE-MRI) to predict clinical response to cardiac resynchronization therapy (CRT). BACKGROUND: Cardiac resynchronization therapy reduces morbidity and mortality in selected heart failure patients. However, up to 30% of patients do not have a response. We hypothesized that scar burden on DE-MRI predicts response to CRT. METHODS: The DE-MRI was performed on 28 heart failure patients undergoing CRT. Patients with QRS > or =120 ms, left ventricular ejection fraction < or =35%, New York Heart Association functional class II to IV, and dyssynchrony > or =60 ms were studied. Baseline and 3-month clinical follow-up, wall motion, 6-min walk, and quality of life assessment were performed. The DE-MRI was performed 10 min after 0.20 mmol/kg intravenous gadolinium. Scar measured by planimetry was correlated with response criteria. RESULTS: Twenty-three patients completed the protocol (mean age 64.9 +/- 11.7 years), with 12 (52%) having a history of myocardial infarction. Thirteen (57%) patients met response criteria. Percent total scar was significantly higher in the nonresponse versus response group (median and interquartile range of 24.7% [18.1 to 48.7] vs. 1.0% [0.0 to 8.7], p = 0.0022) and predicted nonresponse by receiver-operating characteristic analysis (area = 0.94). At a cutoff value of 15%, percent total scar provided a sensitivity and specificity of 85% and 90%, respectively, for clinical response to CRT. Similarly, septal scar < or =40% provided a 100% sensitivity and specificity for response. Regression analysis showed linear correlations between percent total scar and change in each of the individual response criteria. CONCLUSIONS: The DE-MRI accurately predicted clinical response to CRT. This technique offers unique information in the assessment of patients referred for CRT.     

Thrombin causes subsecond changes in protein phosphorylation of platelets

We have developed a general quenched-flow approach to study platelet function as early as 0.3 seconds after stimulation. Phosphorylation of 20- and 40-kd proteins has been analyzed during the first five seconds of platelet response to thrombin from 0.1 to 5.0 U/mL and compared with the progress of aggregation and serotonin secretion. The onset time for aggregation and phosphorylation of both proteins was less than one second, although with lowest (less than 0.5 U/mL) thrombin levels, a lag of up to 0.6 seconds occurred before 40K phosphorylation increased. The thrombin sensitivity of aggregation and 20K phosphorylation was approximately twice that of 40K phosphorylation, with Ka values of 0.51 and 0.53 v 1.10 U/mL, respectively. External calcium was necessary for maximal 20K phosphorylation, since EDTA inhibited this by 30%. The 40K phosphorylation was not affected by EDTA. Platelet activation by thrombin thus induced biochemical changes well before one second. The quenched-flow approach may help to reveal relationships between phospholipase activation, calcium fluxes, and protein phosphorylation during these early periods of platelet function.     

Syndrome of anosmia with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism (kallmann syndrome): Clinical and laboratory studies in 23 cases

We have studied 23 patients (14 men, nine women) in 18 kindreds with anosmia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Seven kindreds had more than one affected member, and included five eugonadal persons with anosmia and two eusomic women with hypogonadotropic hypogonadism. Other clinical abnormalities observed included: obesity (in nine), cryptorchidism (six), osteopenia (six), mild neurosensory hearing loss (five), gynecomastia (five), diabetes mellitus (four), cleft lip or palate or both (three), high-arched palate (two), short fourth metacarpal (two), and clinodactyly, camptodactyly, shortened frenulum of the tongue, multiple facial anomalies, right-sided aortic arch, malrotation of the gut, renal diverticulum, and mild red-green color blindness (one each).Normal secondary sex characteristics developed in all 20 patients treated on a long-term basis with chorionic gonadotropin or gonadal steroids. Responses to a single injection of gonadotropin-releasing hormone were heterogeneous. Five men had no luteinizing hormone response, five had a depressed response, and one an exaggerated response; two had no follicle-stimulating hormone response, five responses were depressed, three were normal, and one was ex-aggerated. None of seven women achieved a normal luteinizing hormone response to gonadotropin-releasing hormone; two had depressed follicle-stimulating hormone response, four responses were normal, and one was exaggerated. None of 11 patients tested responded to clomiphene. Two men fathered children. Each of two other men who underwent biopsy of the testes before and after long-term chorionic gonadotropin therapy showed mildly increased spermatogenesis. Little or no maturation beyond primordial follicles was observed in two ovarian biopsy specimens. Fifteen of 17 patients had normal basal prolactin levels and 14 of 16 had normal thyrotropin-releasing hormone-induced prolactin increase, but nine of 15 tested had a decreased or absent response of prolactin to chlorpromazine. Circulating concentrations of thyroid hormones were normal, but four of 17 patients tested had depressed TSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone) responses to thyrotropin-releasing hormone, and one man had an exaggerated response. Three of 12 patients had a depressed cortisol response to insulin-induced hypoglycemia, and two of seven patients had slightly depressed deoxycortisol responses to metyrapone. Growth hormone and vasopressin release in all 14 and all 12 patients, respectively, studied were essentially normal.Patients with anosmia and hypogonadotropic hypogonadism may have hypothalamic defect(s) responsible for the hypogonadotropism and perhaps for certain additional deficiencies of anterior pituitary function found in some. The cause of less frequent phenotypic abnormalities has not been established. In certain pedigrees, the evidence suggests that the major manifestations of the syndrome are inherited as an autosomal recessive trait.     

Elevated intracellular level of basic fibroblast growth factor correlates with stage of chronic lymphocytic leukemia and is associated with resistance to fludarabine

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) is characterized by delayed senescence and slow accumulation of monoclonal, small lymphocytes. Basic fibroblast growth factor (bFGF) is a pleiotropic cytokine that plays a role in hematopoiesis and apoptosis. Elevated bFGF levels have been detected in urine from patients with a variety of neoplastic diseases including various leukemias; however, the cellular source of the bFGF has not been determined. In this study, the intracellular bFGF level in lymphocytes of 36 patients with B-CLL and 15 normal donors was determined using an enzyme-linked immunoassay. In cells derived from patients with high-risk disease, the median level of intracellular bFGF was 381.5 pg/2 x 10(5) cells, compared with a median of 90.5 pg/2 x 10(5) cells in patients with intermediate disease. In patients with low- risk disease, the median bFGF level was 4.9 pg/2 x 10(5) cells, and in normal controls, it was 6.0 pg/2 x 10(5) cells. The difference in the bFGF levels was significant for the comparison between low- and intermediate-risk (P = .00119), low- and high-risk (P < .0001), and intermediate- and high-risk disease (P = .0001). Immunofluorescent stains of peripheral blood mononuclear cells confirmed CLL lymphocytes as a cellular source of bFGF. To evaluate the potential contribution of elevated intracellular bFGF levels to the phenotype of CLL cells, leukemic cells were cultured in vitro with an apoptotic stimulus (fludarabine). CLL cells with high intracellular levels of bFGF appeared to be more resistant to fludarabine treatment. The addition of bFGF to fludarabine-treated CLL cells resulted in a delay of apoptosis and prolonged survival. These data suggest that bFGF may contribute to the resistance of CLL cells to an apoptotic stimulus.