Prevalence of Artemisia species pollinosis in western Poland: impact of climate change on aerobiological trends, 1995-2004.

BACKGROUND: Artemisia species pollen represents a major cause of allergy in Central Europe. Variations in the pollen season, the influence of climate variables and the prevalence of pollinosis to it were analyzed in Poznan, in western Poland between 1995 and 2004. METHODS: A Hirst volumetric spore trap was used for atmospheric sampling. Pollination date trend analysis and Spearman correlation tests were performed. Skin prick tests (SPT) and allergen specific immunoglobulin (lg)E antibody measurements were performed in 676 and 524 patients, respectively. RESULTS: The Artemisia species pollen season grew longer due to a clear advance in the starting day and only a slightly earlier end point; the peak day also came slightly earlier. Rainfall in the first fortnight of July highly influenced pollen season severity. Temperature was directly correlated with daily Artemisia species pollen levels; relative humidity was inversely correlated. Twelve percent of patients had a positive SPT reaction to Artemisia species. Their symptoms were rhinitis and conjunctivitis (15%), atopic dermatitis (15%), chronic urticaria (14.3%), bronchial asthma (2.4%), and facial and disseminated dermatitis (1.3%). Elevated specific IgE concentrations were detected in the sera of 10.1% of patients. CONCLUSIONS: Artemisia species pollen is an important cause of pollinosis in western Poland. Pollen season intensity is highly influenced by rainfall in the previous weeks. Trends towards earlier season starts and longer duration, possibly caused by climate change, may have an impact on the allergic population.     

Comparative assays of the rpoB gene for identification of Mycobacterium tuberculosis isolated from patients in Sudan.

OBJECTIVES: To characterise mycobacterial clinical isolates based on amplification of the rpoB gene. SETTING: One hundred and thirty-five mycobacterial isolates cultured from suspected pulmonary tuberculosis (TB) patients were identified phenotypically. Molecular characterisation of the isolates was performed based on amplification of the rpoB gene, using duplex polymerase chain reaction (DPCR), PCR-restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) and nested PCR-based sequence analysis techniques. RESULTS: The DPCR assay identified 129 of 135 (95.5%) clinical isolates as Mycobacterium tuberculosis complex species. Restriction enzyme analysis of the rpoB PCR product using Hind II identified 134 of the 135 (99.3%) isolates as M. tuberculosis complex, while nested PCR sequence analysis of the rpoB gene identified 133/133 examined isolates (100%) as M. tuberculosis species. No mycobacteria other than M. tuberculosis (MOTT) were detected among the studied isolates. CONCLUSION: DPCR, PCR/RFLP Hind II and nested PCR sequence analysis of the rpoB gene techniques showed comparable efficiency in the characterisation of Mycobacterium isolates. Nested PCR sequence analysis of the rpoB gene was superior to PCR/RFLP for characterisation of suspected M. tuberculosis isolates, while the DPCR technique showed less sensitivity. As PCR-RFLP requires less sophisticated laboratory facilities than nested PCR sequence analysis, it would be more appropriate to be adopted for accurate characterisation of mycobacteria in countries with a weak infrastructure.     

Modification to improve efficiency of sampling schedules for BA/BE testing of FDC anti-tuberculosis drugs.

SETTING: The assessment of rifampicin (RMP) containing fixed-dose combination (FDC) formulations using in vivo bioequivalence testing is widely accepted. It would be advantageous for both the drug regulatory authorities and drug manufacturers, for optimum minimum blood testing time intervals that encompass all anti-tuberculosis active constituents in the FDC to be established. OBJECTIVE: To determine the optimum blood sampling schedule for testing novel FDC anti-tuberculosis drugs, isoniazid, RMP, pyrazinamide and ethambutol DESIGN: The results of 12 different single-dose, two-way cross-over designs are presented. The studies determined the bioavailability and bioequivalence of RMP-containing FDCs, and conformed with the requirements of the South African national drug regulatory authority for each of the active constituents. RESULTS: The pharmacokinetic parameters to determine bioavailability and the Hauschke method to determine bioequivalence revealed that a six-point time protocol, namely 0, 1, 2, 4, 6 and 8 h, provides a good approximation of the area under the curve, and that an 11-point time protocol of 0, 0.25, 0.5, 1, 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 4, 6 and 8 h provided information comparable to the conventional 15 time-points for FDCs containing up to four drugs. CONCLUSION: The findings provide concrete economic benefit and convenience for quality assurance testing of existing and novel FDCs.     

Migräne

Migraine is a prevalent disease that affects women more frequently than men. A particular trigger for migraine is the perimenstrual period. Acute migraine attacks during menstruation are treated similarly to nonmenstrual attacks, e.g., with analgesics or triptans. In women with pure menstrual migraine, short-term prophylaxis can be performed with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), estrogens, or low-dose triptans. During pregnancy migraine improves. After menopause frequency and severity of migraine attacks improve.     

Inhibition and reversal of platelet-rich arterial thrombus in vivo: direct vs. indirect factor Xa inhibition

BACKGROUND/OBJECTIVE: The efficacy of a direct factor (F)Xa inhibitor, ZK-807834, was compared with indirect inhibition by enoxaparin for inhibition and deaggregation of acute platelet-rich thrombi in a well-characterized porcine carotid injury model. METHODS: A crush injury was performed on a randomly chosen carotid artery and the thrombus allowed to propagate for 30 min. Pigs then received intravenous drug for 35 min: ZK-807834-Dose 1 (40 microg kg(-1) bolus + 1.5 microg kg(-1) min(-1) infusion, n=6); ZK-807834-Dose 2 (20 microg kg(-1) bolus + 0.75 microg kg(-1) min(-1) infusion; n=6); enoxaparin (1 mg kg(-1) bolus; n=6); or saline (n=6). Five minutes after drug initiation, the contralateral artery was injured. Thrombus size was monitored by scintillation detection of autologous 111In-platelets. RESULTS: The prothrombin time ratio was 2.2 +/- 0.1; 1.4 +/- 0.3; 1.2 +/- 0.9 and 1.1 +/- 0.2, respectively. ZK-807834-Dose 1 significantly inhibited carotid platelet deposition (525 +/- 226 x 10(6) cm(-2); P = 0.008), whereas ZK-807834-Dose 2 (2325 +/- 768) and enoxaparin (1236 +/- 383) were not different from saline (2776 +/- 642). Thrombus deaggregation was greatest for animals receiving ZK-807834-Dose 1 (473 +/- 185). Neither ZK-807834-Dose 2 (1588 +/- 480) nor enoxaparin (1618 +/- 686) was different from saline control (2222 +/- 598). CONCLUSIONS: Direct FXa inhibition with ZK-807834, at a prothrombin time ratio of 2.2, effectively inhibits thrombosis and promptly deaggregates thrombi induced by arterial injury. In contrast, indirect FXa inhibition with enoxaparin was ineffective.     

Nekrosen der Kieferknochen unter Bisphosphonattherapie

Bisphosphonates are widely used in the treatment of cancer patients with hypercalcemia and bone metastases or in osteoporosis therapy. Current reports have focused on therapy-resistant osteonecrosis of the jaws as a possible side effect of bisphosphonates. Official German drug committees have recently warned about the possibility of these side effects. So far we have experience with 12 patients showing therapy-resistant osteonecrosis of the mandible under bisphosphonate medication, three of whom received oral bisphosphonates for osteoporosis treatment. Presentation of these three cases provides more information on this clinically important side effect of oral bisphosphonate medication, also in osteoporosis therapy.     

Relevance of 10-min delayed recall in dementia screening

Within the context of early diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease (AD), there is a growing interest in neuropsychological screening tests. Amongst these tests, we focused on the largely used Memory Impairment Screen (MIS). The objective of the present work was to show that adding a 10-min delayed recall to the MIS, improves the test psychometric characteristics in order to detect dementia in the earliest stages. A prospective study was carried out on a cohort of 270 consecutive elderly ambulatory subjects attending the Broca Hospital Memory Clinic: normal controls ( n  = 67), mild cognitive impairment subjects ( n  = 98) and mildly demented patients [ n  = 105, Mini Mental State Examination (MMSE) = 23 ± 4]. This study consisted in testing the advantage of the 10-min delayed recall entitled MIS-D compared with the MIS. At a cut-off score of 6, the MIS-D revealed satisfying psychometric characteristics with a sensitivity of 81% and a specificity of 91%, whilst the MIS alone indicated a sensitivity of 60% and a specificity of 88% in detecting dementia. In demented patients with MMSE score ≥26, MIS-D properties still remained satisfying (sensitivity: 75%, specificity: 92%). MIS-D is a more relevant screening test than MIS alone at very early stages of dementia.     

The antinociceptive effects of anterior pretectal stimulation in tests using thermal, mechanical and chemical noxious stimuli

Four behavioural tests have been used to study the antinociceptive effects of electrical stimulation of the anterior pretectal nucleus (APtN) in the rat. The antinociceptive effects of stimulating this nucleus, which lies dorsally in the posterior diencephalon, have recently been studied extensively but always using briefly applied heat stimuli. It is reported here that APtN stimulation effectively inhibited responses to briefly applied noxious pressure and longer-lasting noxious chemical (formalin) stimuli. Although the tail-flick reflex to noxious heat was very potently depressed by APtN stimulation, responses to noxious heat in the hot-plate test were not. Three doses of morphine were also studied with each test and it was concluded that 15 sec of 35 microA r.m.s. current into the APtN was as effective as 3-5 mg/kg morphine s.c. in the rat.     

The clinical features and prognosis of pseudoseizures diagnosed using video-EEG telemetry

A total of 110 patients underwent diagnostic evaluation for attacks of uncertain origin by means of video-EEG telemetry and had a diagnosis of pseudoseizures confirmed. Eighty-six patients (78%) were female, mean age of onset 25 years, and mean duration of attacks was 3 years. Many of the patients had erroneously been thought to be suffering from epilepsy. The attacks could be divided into two broad categories: attacks of collapse (one-third) and attacks with prominent motor activity (two-thirds). In some patients, the attacks were associated with incontinence and injury. The differential diagnosis and clinical features of the attacks are described. Additional psychiatric features were present in 52 (47%) patients. Follow-up (for a median 5 years; range, 1 to 14 years) showed that 40% of these patients stopped having pseudoseizures. This favorable outcome was associated with being female, leading an independent life, a formal psychological approach to therapy and counseling, and the absence of coexisting epilepsy, but not with the duration of pseudoepilepsy, prior episodes of pseudostatus, the coexistence of overt psychiatric disease, or the clinical features of the attacks.