Evaluation of formalin-inactivated Clostridium difficile vaccines administered by parenteral and mucosal routes of immunization in hamsters.

Clostridium difficile produces toxins that cause inflammation, necrosis, and fluid in the intestine and is the most important cause of nosocomial antibiotic-associated diarrhea and colitis. We evaluated C. difficile antigens as vaccines to protect against systemic and intestinal disease in a hamster model of clindamycin colitis. Formalin-inactivated culture filtrates from a highly toxigenic strain were administered by mucosal routes (intranasal, intragastric, and rectal) with cholera toxin as a mucosal adjuvant. A preparation of culture filtrate and killed whole cells was also tested rectally. The toxoid was also tested parenterally (subcutaneously and intraperitoneally) and by a combination of three intranasal immunizations followed by a combined intranasal-intraperitoneal boost. Serum antibodies against toxins A and B and whole-cell antigen were measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay, neutralization of cytotoxic activity, and bacterial agglutination. The two rectal immunization regimens induced low antibody responses and protected only 20% of hamsters against death and 0% against diarrhea. The intragastric regimen induced high antibody responses but low protection, 40% against death and 0% against diarrhea. Hamsters immunized by the intranasal, intraperitoneal, and subcutaneous routes were 100% protected against death and partially protected (40, 40, and 20%, respectively) against diarrhea. Among the latter groups, intraperitoneally immunized animals had the highest serum anticytotoxic activity and the highest agglutinating antibody responses. Hamsters immunized intranasally and revaccinated intraperitoneally were 100% protected against both death and diarrhea. Protection against death and diarrhea correlated with antibody responses to all antigens tested. The results indicate that optimal protection against C. difficile disease can be achieved with combined parenteral and mucosal immunization.     

Pkd2 haploinsufficiency alters intracellular calcium regulation in vascular smooth muscle cells

Autosomal-dominant polycystic kidney disease is a multiorgan disease and its vascular manifestations are common and life-threatening. Despite this, little is known about their pathogenesis. Somatic mutations to the normal PKD allele in cystic epithelia and cyst development associated with the unstable Pkd2(WS25) allele suggest a two-hit model of cystogenesis. However, it is unclear if this model can account for the cardiovascular pathology or if haploinsufficiency alone is disease-associated. In the present study, we found a decreased polycystin-2 (PC2, protein encoded by Pkd2 gene) expression in Pkd2( +/-) vessels, roughly half the wild-type level, and an enhanced level of intracranial vascular abnormalities in Pkd2 (+/-) mice when induced to develop hypertension. Consistent with these observations, freshly dissociated Pkd2 (+/-) vascular smooth muscle cells have significantly altered intracellular Ca(2+) homeostasis. The resting [Ca(2+)](i) is 17.1% lower in Pkd2 (+/-) compared with wild-type cells (P=0.0003) and the total sarcoplasmic reticulum Ca(2+) store (emptied by caffeine plus thapsigargin) is decreased (P<0.0001). The store operated Ca(2+) (SOC) channel activity is also decreased in Pkd2 (+/-) cells (P=0.008). These results indicate that inactivation of just one Pkd2 allele is sufficient to significantly alter intracellular Ca(2+) homeostasis, and that PC2 is necessary to maintain normal SOC activity and the SR Ca(2+) store in VSMCs. Based on these findings, and the fact that [Ca(2+)](i) signaling is essential to the regulation of contraction, production and secretion of extracellular matrix, cellular proliferation and apoptosis, we propose that the abnormal intracellular Ca(2+) regulation associated with Pkd2 haploinsufficiency is directly related to the vascular phenotype.     

Inflammatory Responses in Blood Samples of Human Immunodeficiency Virus-Infected Patients with Pulmonary Infections

We analyzed the characteristics of the inflammatory response occurring in blood during pulmonary infections in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients. A prospective study of consecutive hospital admissions of HIV-infected patients with new-onset radiologic pulmonary infiltrates was carried out in a tertiary university hospital from April 1998 to May 2001. Plasma cyclic AMP receptor protein (CRP), interleukin 1β (IL-1β), IL-6, IL-8, IL-10, and tumor necrosis factor alpha (TNF-α) levels were determined at the time of admission and 4, 5, and 6 days later. Patients were included in a protocol addressed to study etiology and outcome of disease. A total of 249 episodes of infection were included, with the main diagnoses being bacterial pneumonia (BP) (118 episodes), Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) (41 episodes), and mycobacteriosis (36 episodes). For these three patient groups, at the time of admission the median CRP and cytokine levels were as follows: CRP, 10.2, 3.8 and 5 mg/dl, respectively (P = 0.0001); IL-8, 19, 3, and 2.9 pg/ml (P = 0.045); and TNF-α, 46.4, 44, and 75 pg/ml, respectively (P = 0.029). There were no significant differences in levels of IL-1β, IL-6, or IL-10 among the patient groups. A total of 23 patients died. At the time of admission, HIV-infected patients with BP had higher plasma CRP and IL-8 levels than did PCP and mycobacteriosis patients. TNF-α levels were higher in patients with mycobacteriosis. An elevated IL-8 level (>61 pg/ml) at the time of admission was an independent factor associated with higher mortality (odds ratio, 12; 95% confidence interval, 1.2 to 235.5).     

Polyclonal antibody responses against Listeria monocytogenes 4b surface proteins in asymptomatic human carriers

Listeria monocytogenes 4b surface protein extract was used in an immunoblot assay to analyze the antibody profile in sera from 40 healthy urban workers (U group), 40 healthy slaughterhouse workers (W group) and four healthy carriers with positive L. monocytogenes 4b feces culture (positive controls). In addition, pooled rabbit sera, before and after immunization with L. monocytogenes 4b whole‐cell suspension, were analyzed against L. monocytogenes 4b surface protein extract in order to determine the specific L. monocytogenes 4b antibody pattern. The degree of similarity (S) between such a pattern and each of those obtained with serum samples from the three subject groups was assessed. For U and W group sera, mean S values were 24.3 ± 13.5 and 32.8 ± 14.3, respectively. An S value greater than 65, corresponding to mean S_U value ± 3 standard deviation, was considered as an indicator of a healthy carrier. Thus, the estimated healthy carrier percentages found in U and W groups were 2.5 and 5%, respectively. The proposed immunoblot assay may prove a useful tool for epidemiological surveys to determine whether a healthy person is a L. monocytogenes 4b carrier.     

Correlation between in vitro and in vivo antifungal activities in experimental fluconazole-resistant oropharyngeal and esophageal candidiasis

Oropharyngeal and esophageal candidiasis (OPEC) is a frequent opportunistic mycosis in immunocompromised patients. Azole-resistant OPEC is a refractory form of this infection occurring particularly in human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-infected patients. The procedures developed by the Antifungal Subcommittee of the National Committee for Clinical Laboratory Standards (NCCLS) are an important advance in standardization of in vitro antifungal susceptibility methodology. In order to further understand the relationship between NCCLS methodology and antifungal therapeutic response, we studied the potential correlation between in vitro susceptibility to fluconazole and in vivo response in a rabbit model of fluconazole-resistant OPEC. MICs of fluconazole were determined by NCCLS methods. Three fluconazole-susceptible (FS) (MIC, /=64 microgram/ml) isolates of Candida albicans from prospectively monitored HIV-infected children with OPEC were studied. FR isolates were recovered from children with severe OPEC refractory to fluconazole, and FS isolates were recovered from those with mucosal candidiasis responsive to fluconazole. Fluconazole at 2 mg/kg of body weight/day was administered to infected animals for 7 days. The concentrations of fluconazole in plasma were maintained above the MICs for FS isolates throughout the dosing interval. Fluconazole concentrations in the esophagus were greater than or equal to those in plasma. Rabbits infected with FS isolates and treated with fluconazole had significant reductions in oral mucosal quantitative cultures (P < 0.001) and tissue burden of C. albicans in tongue, soft palate, and esophagus (P < 0.001). In comparison, rabbits infected with FR isolates were unresponsive to fluconazole and had no reduction in oral mucosal quantitative cultures or tissue burden of C. albicans versus untreated controls. We conclude that there is a strong correlation between in vitro fluconazole susceptibility by NCCLS methods and in vivo response to fluconazole therapy of OPEC due to C. albicans.     

Effects of sino-aortic denervation on spectral characteristics of blood pressure and pulse interval variability: a wide-band approach

Sino-aortic denervation (SAD) is employed in cats to evaluate the baroreflex influence on blood pressure (BP) and pulse interval (PI) spectral components from 0·00008 to 0·9 Hz as assessed by FFT wide-band spectra and their 1/f modelling; and the linear coupling between BP and PI and between systolic and diastolic BP as assessed by coherence analysis. Specific procedures have been developed to obtain an effective smoothing of spectra and coherence functions. SAD induced an increase in BP powers from 0·03 to 0·0006 Hz and a power reduction of most of the remaining BP components; a reduction of PI powers at all frequencies; marked deviations of BP spectra from the 1/f trend; a reduction of the coherence between BP and PI from 0·12 to 0·5 Hz and a coherence enhancement at lower frequencies. These findings indicate that the arterial baroreflex modulates both fast and slow spectral components of BP and PI; homogeneously enhances PI fluctuations at all frequencies; produces differentiated effects on BP fluctuations along the frequency axis; and at low frequencies exerts the buffering action on BP through strategies which reduce the BP-PI linear link.     

Histological study of the proximal and distal segments of the embryonic outflow tract and great arteries

The normal development of the ventricular outlets and proximal region of the great arteries is a controversial subject. It is known that the conus, truncus arteriosus (truncus), and aortic sac participate; however, there are some doubts as to the actual prospective fate of the truncus. Some authors propose that it gives origin to the proximal region of the great arteries and that the myocardial cells of its wall become smooth muscle. Nevertheless, others think that the truncus only forms the arterial valve apparatus and that therefore the myocardial cells transform into fibroblasts. As a first approach to beginning to elucidate which process occurs, the aim of this article was to study the histological changes in the wall of these components of the developing heart in chick embryos whose hearts had been labeled at the truncoconal boundary at stage 22HH, tracing the changes up to stage 36HH. Also, the histological constitution of the wall of the pulmonary arterial trunk and its valve apparatus were studied in the posthatching and adult hearts of chickens and rats. The conus and truncus walls were always encircled by a myocardial sleeve from the outset of their development. Between stages 26HH to 28HH, the truncal myocardial cells adjacent to the mesenchymal tissue of the ridges began to lose cell-to-cell contacts and invaded the extracellular matrix. At stage 24HH, the aortic sac began to project into the pericardial cavity and became divided into two channels by the aortic-pulmonary septum at stage 26HH. The wall of the aortic sac is mostly constituted by a compact mesenchymal tissue. Initially, it does not have smooth muscle but this starts to appear at stage 30HH. The insertion ring of the valves, a broad structure, was formed by mesenchymal tissue. Both structures were always covered by a myocardial sleeve. The leaflets developed from the truncal ridges, the segment immediately proximal to the aortic sac. Our results indicate that the proximal region of the pulmonary and aortic arteries do not originate from the truncus arteriosus; rather, we found that they take origin from the aortic sac. Thus, our findings agree with the proposal that the myocardial cells of the external sleeve of the truncus become fibroblastic and suggest that the insertion ring of the arterial valves has a dual origin: fibroblasts produced by truncal myocardial transdiferentiation and the mesenchymal tissue of the proximal region of the truncal ridges, while the leaflets have their origin from the truncal ridges. We discuss the fact that, because the truncus arteriosus does not give origin to the trunks of the aortic and pulmonary arteries, it may be necessary to modify terminology. Based on our results, together with the new findings obtained by in vivo labeling, immunostaining, a chimeric approach, and ultrastructural studies, we propose a developmental model that correlates the fate of the conus, truncus, and aortic sac with the normal morphogenesis of the ventricular outlet tracts and the trunks of the great arteries. (c) 2005 Wiley-Liss, Inc.     

Microsatellite analysis of synchronous and metachronous tumors: a tool for double primary tumor and metastasis assessment.

Despite well-established histopathological features and the development of immunostaining of human neoplasms, there are a number of cases in which surgical pathologists cannot assure the origin of synchronous and metachronous tumors. In many cases, the classification of these lesions as either two separate primary tumors or as a single primary tumor with a metastasis has significant implications with respect to patient prognosis and recommendations for therapy. To establish the origin of tumors, we assessed tumor cell clonality using PCR-based microsatellite analysis on microdissected archival tissues for loss of heterozygosity (LOH) and microsatellite instability (MSI) in a series of 19 paired synchronous and metachronous tumors from several organs. As a control group, 15 autopsy cases with an unequivocally recognizable primary tumor and associated metastases were also examined. Based on LOH and MSI findings, and using a panel of 4 to 12 (median 7) microsatellite markers, we were able to establish the clonal pattern of microsatellite changes in 17 out of 19 (89%) biopsy cases and thus determine if they were either double primary tumors (41%) or metastases (59%). Of interest, identical or similar pattern of microsatellite abnormalities were detected in 15 primary tumors and corresponding metastasis from autopsies. Our results indicate that microsatellite analysis for LOH and MSI, as an expression of clonality, provides a useful tool to distinguish double primary neoplasms and metastases in synchronous and metachronous tumors.     

Controlled administration of penicillin to patients with a positive history but negative skin and specific serum IgE tests

BACKGROUND: Although subjects with a positive history of immediate allergy to penicillin and negative skin test are traditionally considered to tolerate penicillin, current evidence indicates that they may develop an immediate reaction despite negative skin and serum specific IgE tests. It is thought that these patients require additional tests to confirm the diagnosis. OBJECTIVE: To assess in a large group of patients with a history of immediate allergy to penicillins but with both skin test and CAP-FEIA-negative to classical and side chain penicillin determinants, the role of controlled administration of betalactams as a diagnostic test. METHODS: A group of 330 patients with a history of immediate allergic reactions to penicillins was studied by two evaluators from the same allergy unit using the following protocol: skin tests with major and minor determinants of benzylpenicillin (benzylpenicilloyl-poly l-lysine and minor determinant mixture), amoxicillin and ampicillin, and determination of specific IgE antibodies to penicillins, by CAP-FEIA, in serum. If both tests proved negative, a controlled administration of the drug was then carried out. RESULTS: A total of 89 (27%) patients were skin test and CAP-FEIA-negative and therefore required controlled administration of the drug. Of these, 49 developed an immediate response and were therefore considered allergic, and the remainder had good tolerance after administration of both benzylpenicillin and amoxicillin. The clinical characteristics of this group were similar to the other allergic patients who were skin test or CAP-FEIA-positive, except that they were younger (P < 0.01). Twenty-two (45%) developed a response to benzylpenicillin and 27 (55%) had a selective response to amoxicillin. Although all reactions appeared within 1 h, a positive correlation was found between the dose inducing the response and the time elapsed from drug administration, for both benzylpenicillin and amoxicillin (P < 0.001). CONCLUSION: These data indicate that an important number of subjects are not correctly identified if only skin tests and/or CAP-FEIA are used and that this is particularly relevant for side chain-specific reactions and younger subjects. This suggests that new diagnostic tests are required so as to limit the use of controlled administration.