Oral health of the methamphetamine abuser.

PURPOSE: The pharmacology of methamphetamine is reviewed, and the effects of methamphetamine use on oral health are described. SUMMARY: Methamphetamine is a highly addictive amphetamine analogue, initially synthesized in 1919. Illicit methamphetamine use leads to devastating effects on health, particularly the dentition. Illegal production of methamphetamine has skyrocketed in recent years, as have the number of users. The chief complaint of methamphetamine users is xerostomia. Without the protective effects of saliva, caries development in these patients is rampant. The typical pattern of decay involves the facial and cervical areas of both the maxillary and mandibular teeth, with eventual progression to frank coronal involvement. The acidic substances used to manufacture this drug have also been implicated as a cause of tooth decay and wear in users, as has bruxism as a result of drug-induced hyperactivity. When possible, these patients should be referred to a dentist to improve their oral health status and minimize the potential for adverse cardiovascular sequelae. Other preventive measures for methamphetamine users include stimulating saliva flow and increasing fluoride supplementation. Pharmacists should also counsel users to avoid carbohydrate-rich soft drinks in favor of water. Oral moisturizers may also be effective. CONCLUSION: Methamphetamine use causes xerostomia secondary to sympathetic central nervous system activation, rampant caries caused by high-sugar intake in the absence of protective saliva, and bruxism as a result of hyperactivity. Practitioners should know how to recognize the signs of and manage the oral health of patients with a history of methamphetamine use.     

Evacuation of hematomas using liposuction technology: Technique and literature review

Established nonexpanding hematomas can be successfully treated with minimal morbidity using standard liposucstion techniques at the bedside or in an outpatient setting under local anesthesia. The authors presents a series of eight patients and discuss current concepts of dealing with this common and distressing surgical complication.     

Frozen section analysis of esophageal endoscopic mucosal resection specimens in the real-time management of Barrett's esophagus.

BACKGROUND & AIMS: The aim of this study was to assess the validity of frozen section analysis of endoscopic mucosal resection (EMR) specimens from Barrett's esophagus as compared with permanent sections for the detection of neoplasia. Frozen sections help to give immediate feedback for surgical procedures. It has not been determined whether EMR can be adequately interpreted by using frozen sections to aid endoscopists in completely resecting neoplastic lesions. METHODS: EMR specimens from Barrett's esophagus with high-grade dysplasia (HGD) and/or carcinoma were tested by frozen section. Pathologists evaluated EMR specimens for the depth of invasion as well as the appearance of clear margins of resection. The kappa statistic was calculated to assess the degree of agreement between the frozen section and permanent section diagnoses. RESULTS: Twenty-three consecutive patients underwent 30 EMRs with frozen section diagnosis. Frozen section revealed a carcinoma in 7 specimens (23%) and dysplasia in 20 (66%). Permanent sections found carcinoma in 8 specimens (26%), dysplasia in 19 specimens (63%), and normal or nondysplastic Barrett's esophagus in the remainder. The kappa statistic for the depth of invasion of EMR specimens was 0.93 (near perfect agreement). The kappa statistic for the margins of the EMR specimens was 0.80 (excellent agreement). CONCLUSIONS: This study indicated that frozen section analysis of esophageal EMR specimens is valid as compared with permanent section. This technique might allow rapid evaluation about the degree and depth of involvement of cancers. This allows physicians to make decisions regarding further therapy if margins are involved or decrease the use of EMR for histologically benign-appearing lesions.     

Distance-adjusted motor threshold for transcranial magnetic stimulation.

OBJECTIVE: To examine the relationship between coil-cortex distance and effective cortical stimulation using transcranial magnetic stimulation (TMS) in the left and right motor cortex. We also compare the effect of coil-cortex distance using 50 and 70 mm figure-eight stimulating coils. METHODS: Coil-cortex distance was manipulated within each participant using 5 and 10 mm acrylic separators placed between the coil and scalp surface. The effect of cortical stimulation was indexed by resting motor threshold (MT). RESULTS: Increasing distance between the coil and underlying cortex was associated with a steep linear increase in MT. For each additional millimetre separating the stimulating coil from the scalp surface, an additional approximately 2.8% of absolute stimulator output (approximately 0.062 T) was required to reach MT. The gradient of the observed distance effect did not differ between hemispheres, and no differences were observed between the 50 and 70 mm TMS coils. CONCLUSIONS: Coil-cortex distance directly influences the magnitude of cortical stimulation in TMS. The relationship between TMS efficacy and coil-cortex distance is well characterised by a linear function, providing a simple and effective method for scaling stimulator output to a distance adjusted MT. SIGNIFICANCE: MT measured at the scalp-surface is dependent on the underlying scalp-cortex distance, and therefore does not provide an accurate index of cortical excitability. Distance-adjusted MT provides a more accurate index of cortical excitability, and improves the safety and efficacy of MT-calibrated TMS.     

Unplanned splenectomy during oesophagectomy does not affect survival.

OBJECTIVE: There are limited and conflicting data available concerning the incidence of inadvertent splenectomy and its impact on the outcome in patients who have undergone oesophagectomy. The aim of this study is to identify the factors associated with a likelihood of inadvertent splenectomy and its influence on early and long-term outcome in patients having oesophagectomy for oesophageal carcinoma. METHODS: A consecutive series of 738 oesophagectomies performed between 1991 and 2004 was analysed. In our practice, the spleen was removed only if damaged intraoperatively. Routine chemo- and immunoprophylaxis would subsequently be used. Multivariate analysis with logistic and Cox models determined significant variables. RESULTS: Of the 738 oesophagectomies, 48 (6.5%) had splenectomy. Neoadjuvant chemotherapy was administered to a minority of patients; none subsequently had splenectomy. There were significant differences between types of operation (Ivor-Lewis 18 (9.0%), left thoracolaparotomy 14 (9.9%) and left thoracophrenotomy 15 (3.9%), p=0.01). Splenectomy was more common with advanced N stage disease (OR=0.44 [0.20-0.95]; p=0.04). Splenectomy resulted in more blood transfusions (median, 2 units vs 0 units; p=0.03) more anastomotic leaks (7 [14.6%] vs 42 [6.1%]; p=0.02) but not an increase in pulmonary complications (p=0.64) or in-hospital mortality (1 [4.6%] vs 37 [5.4%]; p=0.30). Splenectomy did not significantly affect median survival (551 [332-770] days vs 627 [554-700] days; p=0.63). CONCLUSION: Although inadvertent splenectomy increased the morbidity of oesophagectomy, it did not impair survival. Type of operation and advanced N stage are important risks for splenectomy. Though best avoided, most of the consequences of splenectomy can be managed. An unexpected relationship between splenectomy and anastomotic leaks needs further investigation.     

A technique to anesthetize turtles with ether.

A technique to anesthetize turtles with ether is presented, in which a plastic cannula is passed through the glottis into the trachea. This procedure avoids apnea and allows ether vapours obtained from a chamber to be introduced, by the animal respiratory movements or by means of a pump, into the animal lungs. The anesthesia is rapidly obtained and lasts from 45-90 minutes. The time of recovery from anesthesia ranged from 60-90 minutes. With this technique no deaths were observed and the same animal could be anesthetized repeatedly.     

Parvalbumin 3 is an Abundant Ca2+ Buffer in Hair Cells

Ca2+ signaling serves distinct purposes in different parts of a hair cell. The Ca2+ concentration in stereocilia regulates adaptation and, through rapid transduction-channel reclosure, underlies amplification of mechanical signals. In presynaptic active zones, Ca2+ mediates the exocytotic release of afferent neurotransmitter. At efferent synapses, Ca2+ activates the K+ channels that dominate the inhibitory postsynaptic potential. A copious supply of diffusible protein buffer isolates the three signals by restricting the spread of free Ca2+ and limiting the duration of its action. Using cDNA subtraction and a gene expression assay based on in situ hybridization, we detected abundant expression of mRNAs encoding the Ca2+ buffer parvalbumin 3 in bullfrog saccular and chicken cochlear hair cells. We cloned cDNAs encoding this protein from the corresponding inner-ear libraries and raised antisera against recombinant bullfrog parvalbumin 3. Immunohistochemical labeling indicated that parvalbumin 3 is a prominent Ca2+-binding protein in the compact, cylindrical hair cells of the bullfrog's sacculus, and occurs as well in the narrow, peanut-shaped hair cells of that organ. Using quantitative Western blot analysis, we ascertained that the concentration of parvalbumin 3 in saccular hair cells is approximately 3 mM. Parvalbumin 3 is therefore a significant mobile Ca2+ buffer, and perhaps the dominant buffer, in many types of hair cell. Moreover, parvalbumin 3 provides an early marker for developing hair cells in the frog, chicken, and zebrafish.