Hydrosalpinges adversely affect markers of endometrial receptivity

While in-vitro fertilization (IVF) was initially developed in women with tubal factor infertility, recent clinical studies have suggested that the presence of hydrosalpinges lowers implantation and pregnancy rates. We postulated that these hydrosalpinges cause impaired endometrial receptivity. A total of 103 women with hydrosalpinges were prospectively evaluated, and compared with 55 infertile and 44 fertile controls. All women had endometrial biopsies during the window of implantation, analysed by conventional histological criteria, and also stained for three integrin markers of endometrial receptivity (alpha1beta1, alpha4beta1 and alpha vbeta3). Women with hydrosalpinges (cases) expressed significantly less of the alpha vbeta3 integrin compared with controls. There was no difference in expression of alpha1beta1 or alpha4beta1 among groups. A significantly greater number of cases had out of phase histology and missing alpha vbeta3 (type I defects) and absent integrin expression despite normal histological maturation (type II) defects, compared with controls. Of 20 women with impaired endometrial receptivity who were also biopsied after hydrosalpinx surgery, 70% demonstrated increased alpha vbeta3 expression. Seventy-seven percent of type I and 57% of type II defects were corrected postoperatively. Using markers of endometrial receptivity, this study demonstrates that inflammatory hydrosalpinges have an adverse effect on endometrial receptivity, which in some cases may be overcome by surgical treatment of the hydrosalpinx.      

Isolation and characterization of monoclonal antibodies against alkaline phosphatase of Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

Monoclonal antibodies against the alkaline phosphatase of Pseudomonas aeruginosa were produced from spleen cells of BALB/c mice primed with purified alkaline phosphatase of P. aeruginosa ATCC 10145 and SP20/Ag-14 myeloma cells. The eight stable clones established produced antibodies that reacted by enzyme-linked immunosorbent and indirect immunofluorescence assays with all bacterial strains of P. aeruginosa, including the 17 serotypes and two nontypable strains. Three of the clones cross-reacted only with some Pseudomonas species of the rRNA homology group I defined by N. J. Palleroni (in N. R. Krieg and J. G. Holt, ed., Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology, 8th ed., p. 140-218, 1984). The other clones also interacted with other species, including Pseudomonas acidovorans and Xanthomonas maltophilia. Because other species of the genera Aeromonas and Acinetobacter and species of the family Enterobacteriaceae were not detected by these monoclonal antibodies, the antibodies could be used as reagents for routine detection of P. aeruginosa in clinical specimens. Interactions of the antibodies with other Pseudomonas species such as P. fluorescens and P. stutzeri are not important, since these species are susceptible to the same antipseudomonal agents.     

Human phagocytic cell responses to Scedosporium apiospermum (Pseudallescheria boydii): variable susceptibility to oxidative injury

Scedosporium apiospermum (Pseudallescheria boydii) is an emerging opportunistic filamentous fungus that causes serious infections in both immunocompetent and immunocompromised patients. To gain insight into the immunopathogenesis of infections due to S. apiospermum, the antifungal activities of human polymorphonuclear leukocytes (PMNs), mononuclear leukocytes (MNCs), and monocyte-derived macrophages (MDMs) against two clinical isolates of S. apiospermum were evaluated. Isolate SA54A was amphotericin B resistant and was the cause of a fatal disseminated infection. Isolate SA1216 (cultured from a successfully treated localized subcutaneous infection) was susceptible to amphotericin B. MDMs exhibited similar phagocytic activities against conidia of both isolates. However, PMNs and MNCs responded differently to the hyphae of these two isolates. Serum opsonization of hyphae resulted in a higher level of superoxide anion (O(2)(-)) release by PMNs in response to SA54A (amphotericin B resistant) than that seen in response to SA1216 (amphotericin B susceptible; P < 0.001). Despite this increased O(2)(-) production, PMNs and MNCs induced less hyphal damage to SA54A than to SA1216 (P < 0.001). To investigate the potential mechanisms responsible for these differences, hyphal damage was evaluated in the presence of antifungal oxidative metabolites as well as in the presence of a series of inhibitors and scavengers of antifungal PMN function. Mannose, catalase, superoxide dismutase, dimethyl sulfoxide, and heparin had no effect on PMN-induced hyphal damage to either of the two isolates. However, azide, which inhibits PMN myeloperoxidase activity, significantly reduced hyphal damage to SA1216 (P < 0.01) but not to SA54A. Hyphae of SA1216 were slightly more susceptible to oxidative pathway products, particularly HOCl, than those of SA54A. Thus, S. apiospermum is susceptible to antifungal phagocytic function to various degrees. The selective inhibitory pattern of azide with respect to hyphal damage and the parallel susceptibility to HOCl suggests an important difference in susceptibilities to myeloperoxidase products that may be related to the various levels of pathogenicity and amphotericin B resistance of S. apiospermum.     

bcl-2 transgene expression promotes survival and reduces proliferation of CD3-CD4-CD8- T cell progenitors

Proliferative expansion and apoptotic cell death play prominent roles in T cell development. The molecular control of cell cycle progression and apoptosis appear to be inter-connected since the Bcl-2 protein can inhibit apoptosis and slow cell cycle progression in cortical thymocytes and mature T cells, particularly during the transition from the quiescent state into the cell cycle. Here the impact of bcl-2 transgene expression on CD3-CD4-CD8- T cell progenitors was assessed. Bcl-2 enhanced the survival of these progenitors at all of the four major differentiation stages, CD25- CD44+ (pro-T1), CD25 + CD44+ (pro- T2), CD25 + CD44- (pro-T3) and CD25-CD44- (pro-T4). However, it reduced cell cycling and slowed turnover only in the pro-T4 subset. From an analysis of bcl-2 transgenic mice expressing a TCR transgene or bearing a mutation in the scid or rag-1 gene we conclude that Bcl-2 inhibits proliferation only of T cell progenitors that are activated via the pre- TCR, not those stimulated via c-Kit and the IL-7 receptor.      

Mutations in the Ca(2+)-sensing receptor gene cause autosomal dominant and sporadic hypoparathyroidism

Parathyroid hormone secretion is negatively regulated by a 7- transmembrane domain, G-protein coupled Ca(2+)-sensing receptor. We hypothesized that activating mutations in this receptor might cause autosomal dominant hypoparathyroidism (ADHP). Consistent with this hypothesis, we identified, in two families with ADHP, heterozygous missense mutations in the Ca(2+)-sensing receptor gene that cosegregated with the disorder. None of 50 normal controls had either mutation. We also identified a de novo, missense Ca(2+)-sensing receptor mutation in a child with severe sporadic hypoparathyroidism. The amino acid substitution in one ADHP family affected the N-terminal, extracellular domain of the receptor. The other mutations involved the transmembrane region. Unlike patients with acquired hypoparathyroidism, patients with these mutations had hypercalciuria even at low serum calcium concentrations. Their greater hypercalciuria presumably reflected activation of Ca(2+)-sensing receptors in kidney cells, where the receptor negatively regulates calcium reabsorption. This augmented hypercalciuria increases the risk of renal complications and thus has implications for the choice of therapy.      

Phenotypic abnormalities: terminology and classification

Clinical morphology has proved essential for the successful delineation of hundreds of syndromes and as a powerful instrument for detecting (candidate) genes (Gorlin et al. [2001]; Syndromes of the Head and Neck; Oxford: Oxford University Press. 1 p]. The major approach to reach this has been careful clinical evaluations of patients, focused on congenital anomalies. A similar careful physical examination performed in patients, who have been treated for childhood cancer, may allow detection of concurrent patterns of anomalies and provide clues for causative genes. In the past, several studies were performed describing the prevalence of anomalies in patients with cancer. However, in most studies, it was not possible to indicate the biologic relevance of the recorded anomalies, or to judge their relative importance. Are the detected anomalies common variants, and should they thus be regarded as normal, or are they minor anomalies or true abnormalities, indicating a possible developmental cause? Classification of items in the categories of common variants (disturbances of phenogenesis with a prevalence >4%), minor anomalies (disturbances of phenogenesis with a prevalence 相似文献   

Mutation spectrum and genotype-phenotype analyses in Cowden disease and Bannayan-Zonana syndrome, two hamartoma syndromes with germline PTEN mutation

The tumour suppressor gene PTEN , which maps to 10q23.3 and encodes a 403 amino acid dual specificity phosphatase (protein tyrosine phosphatase; PTPase), was shown recently to play a broad role in human malignancy. Somatic PTEN deletions and mutations were observed in sporadic breast, brain, prostate and kidney cancer cell lines and in several primary tumours such as endometrial carcinomas, malignant melanoma and thyroid tumours. In addition, PTEN was identified as the susceptibility gene for two hamartoma syndromes: Cowden disease (CD; MIM 158350) and Bannayan-Zonana (BZS) or Ruvalcaba-Riley-Smith syndrome (MIM 153480). Constitutive DNA from 37 CD families and seven BZS families was screened for germline PTEN mutations. PTEN mutations were identified in 30 of 37 (81%) CD families, including missense and nonsense point mutations, deletions, insertions, a deletion/insertion and splice site mutations. These mutations were scattered over the entire length of PTEN , with the exception of the first, fourth and last exons. A 'hot spot' for PTEN mutation in CD was identified in exon 5 that contains the PTPase core motif, with 13 of 30 (43%) CD mutations identified in this exon. Seven of 30 (23%) were within the core motif, the majority (five of seven) of which were missense mutations, possibly pointing to the functional significance of this region. Germline PTEN mutations were identified in four of seven (57%) BZS families studied. Interestingly, none of these mutations was observed in the PTPase core motif. It is also worthy of note that a single nonsense point mutation, R233X, was observed in the germline DNA from two unrelated CD families and one BZS family. Genotype-phenotype studies were not performed on this small group of BZS families. However, genotype-phenotype analysis inthe group of CD families revealed two possible associations worthy of follow-up in independent analyses. The first was an association noted in the group of CD families with breast disease. A correlation was observed between the presence/absence of a PTEN mutation and the type of breast involvement (unaffected versus benign versus malignant). Specifically and more directly, an association was also observed between the presence of a PTEN mutation and malignant breast disease. Secondly, there appeared to be an interdependent association between mutations upstream and within the PTPase core motif, the core motif containing the majority of missense mutations, and the involvement of all major organ systems (central nervous system, thyroid, breast, skin and gastrointestinal tract). However, these observations would need to be confirmed by studying a larger number of CD families.      

Symptomatic peripheral arterial disease: the value of a validated questionnaire and a clinical decision rule

BACKGROUND: If a validated questionnaire, when applied to patients reporting with symptoms of intermittent claudication, could adequately discriminate between those with and without peripheral arterial disease, GPs could avoid the diagnostic measurement of the ankle brachial index. AIM: To investigate the Edinburgh Claudication Questionnaire (ECQ) in general practice and to develop a clinical decision rule based on risk factors to enable GPs to easily assess the likelihood of peripheral arterial disease. DESIGN OF STUDY: An observational study. SETTING: General practice in The Netherlands. METHOD: This observational study included patients of > or =55 years visiting their GP for symptoms suggestive of intermittent claudication or with one risk factor. The ECQ and the ankle brachial index were performed. The prevalence of peripheral arterial disease, defined as an ankle brachial index <0.9, was related to risk factors using logistic regression analyses, on which a clinical decision rule was developed and related to the presence of peripheral arterial disease. RESULTS: Of the 4790 included patients visiting their GP with symptoms suggestive of intermittent claudication, 4527 were eligible for analyses. The prevalence of peripheral arterial disease in this group was 48.3%. The sensitivity of the ECQ was only 56.2%. The prevalence of peripheral arterial disease in a clinical decision rule that included age, male sex, smoking, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and a positive ECQ, increased from 14% in the lowest to 76% in the highest category. CONCLUSION: This study indicates that the ECQ alone has an inadequate diagnostic value in detecting patients with peripheral arterial disease. The ankle brachial index should be performed to diagnose peripheral arterial disease in patients with complaints suggestive of intermittent claudication, although our clinical decision rule could help to differentiate between extremely high and lower prevalence of peripheral arterial disease.