Effectiveness of combined GnRH analogue plus raloxifene administration in the treatment of uterine leiomyomas: a prospective,randomized, single-blind,placebo-controlled clinical trial

BACKGROUND: Raloxifene hydrochloride is a synthetic non-steroidal drug used for the prevention and treatment of post-menopausal osteoporosis. Pre-clinical and clinical data have shown that raloxifene may have a beneficial effect on leiomyomas. The aim of this prospective single-blind, randomized, placebo-controlled clinical trial was to evaluate the effectiveness of the addition of raloxifene to GnRH analogues on uterine, leiomyoma, and non-leiomyoma sizes, and on the occurrence of leiomyoma-related symptoms. METHODS: After randomization using a computer-generated list, 100 pre-menopausal women with symptomatic uterine leiomyomas received either leuprolide acetate depot plus raloxifene 60 mg daily (group A) or leuprolide plus placebo tablet (group B) for six cycles of 28 days. At baseline and after treatment, uterine, leiomyoma and non-leiomyoma sizes, and leiomyoma-related symptoms were evaluated for each woman. Analysis was by intention-to-treat method. RESULTS: After six cycles of treatment, a significant decrease in uterine, leiomyoma, and non-leiomyoma sizes was detected in both groups in comparison with baseline. At the same time, no significant difference in uterine and non-leiomyoma sizes was observed between the groups. Leiomyoma sizes were significantly (P < 0.05) lower in group A than in group B. No difference was observed in leiomyoma-related symptoms between groups throughout the study period. CONCLUSIONS: In women treated with GnRH analogue, the raloxifene administration induces a higher reduction of leiomyoma sizes.     

Giant ragweed specific immunotherapy is not effective in a proportion of patients sensitized to short ragweed: analysis of the allergenic differences between short and giant ragweed

BACKGROUND: Short ragweed and giant ragweed pollen allergens are considered largely cross-reactive, and it is generally believed that 1 species is sufficient for skin testing and immunotherapy. However, in the area north of Milan (a zone widely invaded only by short ragweed), about 50% of patients submitted to injection specific immunotherapy with giant ragweed showed little or no clinical response, but showed an excellent outcome if they were shifted to short ragweed specific immunotherapy. OBJECTIVE: To investigate allergenic differences between short and giant ragweed. METHODS: IgE reactivity to short ragweed of sera from 16 patients allergic to ragweed was assessed by immunoblot before and after absorption with short and giant ragweed. Moreover, 41 ragweed-monosensitive patients underwent skin prick test with both ragweed species. RESULTS: In several cases, preabsorption of sera with giant ragweed extract was unable to inhibit IgE reactivity fully against both a 43-kd allergen and other allergens at different molecular weights in short ragweed. On skin prick test, short ragweed induced larger wheals than giant ragweed in the majority of patients, and 6 of 41 (15%) patients were strongly short ragweed-positive but giant ragweed-negative. The immunoblot with the serum from 1 of these subjects showed a strong IgE reactivity to short ragweed at about 43 kd in the absence of any reactivity to giant ragweed. CONCLUSION: Short and giant ragweed are not allergenically equivalent. Allergenic differences involve both the major allergens Amb a 1-2/Amb t 1-2 and some minor allergens. In patients allergic to ragweed, both diagnosis in vivo and immunotherapy should always be performed by using the ragweed species present in that specific geographic area.     

Characterization of Sicilian strains of spotted fever group rickettsiae by using monoclonal antibodies.

Twenty-two hybridomas producing anti-Rickettsia conorii monoclonal antibodies were obtained by nine fusion experiments. The strain chosen for immunization of mice was MAVI, an R. conorii strain isolated from a Sicilian patient with Boutonneuse fever. When tested for immunoglobulin isotype by an indirect immunofluorescence (IIF) assay, 46.6% of supernatants from the 22 hybridomas were immunoglobulin M. The supernatants were tested in the IIF assay for binding to the MAVI strain and four spotted fever group rickettsia strains isolated from Sicilian ticks (two virulent and two nonpathogenic when inoculated intraperitoneally in male guinea pigs). Only five of the supernatants showed a positive IIF result on all tested strains, although they produced different titers to the various strains, possibly an indication that they recognized an antigen common to spotted fever group rickettsiae. Immunodominant epitopes for humans were determined by using patient sera to analyze inhibition of binding to the MAVI strain. Although a limited number of serum samples were screened, a high percentage of Boutonneuse fever patients produced antibodies recognizing the same epitopes as were recognized by the mouse monoclonal antibodies. A striking heterogeneity was found both in the expression of mouse-recognized epitopes on the five rickettsial strains and in the serum antibody responses of Boutonneuse fever patients to these epitopes.     

Neural control of fast-regular saccades and antisaccades: an investigation using positron emission tomography

 Regional cerebral blood flow changes related to the performance of two oculomotor tasks and a central fixation task were compared in ten healthy human subjects. The tasks were: (a) performance of fast-regular saccades; (b) performance of voluntary antisaccades away from a peripheral cue; (c) passive maintenance of central visual fixation in the presence of irrelevant peripheral stimulation. The saccadic task was associated with a relative increase in activity in a number of occipitotemporal areas. Compared with both the fixation and the saccadic task, the performance of antisaccades activated a set of areas including: the superior and inferior parietal lobules, the precentral and prefrontal cortex, the cingulate cortex, and the supplementary motor area. The results of the present study suggest that: (a) compared with self-determined saccadic responses the performance of fast regular, reflexive saccades produces a limited activation of the frontal eye fields; (b) in the antisaccadic task the inferior parietal lobes subserve operations of sensory-motor integration dealing with attentional disengagement from the initial peripheral cue (appearing at an invalid spatial location) and with the recomputation of the antisaccadic vector on the basis of the wrong (e.g., spatially opposite) information provided by the same cue. Received: 20 May 1996 / Accepted: 28 January 1997     

Employing a systematic approach to biobanking and analyzing clinical and genetic data for advancing COVID-19 research

Within the GEN-COVID Multicenter Study, biospecimens from more than 1000 SARS-CoV-2 positive individuals have thus far been collected in the GEN-COVID Biobank (GCB). Sample types include whole blood, plasma, serum, leukocytes, and DNA. The GCB links samples to detailed clinical data available in the GEN-COVID Patient Registry (GCPR). It includes hospitalized patients (74.25%), broken down into intubated, treated by CPAP-biPAP, treated with O₂ supplementation, and without respiratory support (9.5%, 18.4%, 31.55% and 14.8, respectively); and non-hospitalized subjects (25.75%), either pauci- or asymptomatic. More than 150 clinical patient-level data fields have been collected and binarized for further statistics according to the organs/systems primarily affected by COVID-19: heart, liver, pancreas, kidney, chemosensors, innate or adaptive immunity, and clotting system. Hierarchical clustering analysis identified five main clinical categories: (1) severe multisystemic failure with either thromboembolic or pancreatic variant; (2) cytokine storm type, either severe with liver involvement or moderate; (3) moderate heart type, either with or without liver damage; (4) moderate multisystemic involvement, either with or without liver damage; (5) mild, either with or without hyposmia. GCB and GCPR are further linked to the GCGDR, which includes data from whole-exome sequencing and high-density SNP genotyping. The data are available for sharing through the Network for Italian Genomes, found within the COVID-19 dedicated section. The study objective is to systematize this comprehensive data collection and begin identifying multi-organ involvement in COVID-19, defining genetic parameters for infection susceptibility within the population, and mapping genetically COVID-19 severity and clinical complexity among patients.Subject terms: Genetics research, Viral infection     

Age-dependent changes in the susceptibility to apoptosis of peripheral blood CD4+ and CD8+ T lymphocytes with virgin or memory phenotype

Susceptibility to apoptosis changes with age and most of the available data on lymphocytes refer to mitogen stimulated cells. We studied this susceptibility in quiescent, purified CD4+ or CD8+ T cells from a group of Italian old people compared with a group of young people. We found that an apoptotic agent such as 2-deoxy-D-ribose (dRib), which acts via glutathione depletion and oxidative stress, was more effective in CD4+ T cells from young donors, while no difference was found in CD8+ T cells. On the contrary, another agent such as TNF-alpha, which acts via receptor engagement, was more effective in CD8+ T cells from old subjects, and no difference was found in CD4+ T cells. When marker of activation-memory were investigated, no difference between young and old subjects was found when dRib was used. Differently, when TNF-alpha was used, memory and activated CD4+ T cells from old donors were less sensitive than younger counterparts, while memory CD8+ T cells from old donors were more sensitive than younger counterparts. This suggests that age-related changes in susceptibility to apoptosis of resting T cells largely depend on the type of the apoptotic stimulus which is used as well as on the memory phenotype of the cells. These results may also account, at least in part, for the deep remodelling of T cell repertoire that occurs during ageing.     

The role of cartilage canals in endochondral and perichondral bone formation: are there similarities between these two processes?

We investigated the development of cartilage canals to clarify their function in the process of bone formation. Cartilage canals are tubes containing vessels that are found in the hyaline cartilage prior to the formation of a secondary ossification centre (SOC). Their exact role is still controversial and it is unclear whether they contribute to endochondral bone formation when an SOC appears. We examined the cartilage canals of the chicken femur in different developmental stages (E20, D2, 5, 7, 8, 10 and 13). To obtain a detailed picture of the cellular and molecular events within and around the canals the femur was investigated by means of three-dimensional reconstruction, light microscopy, electron microscopy, histochemistry and immunohistochemistry [vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF), type I and II collagen]. An SOC was visible for the first time on the last embryonic day (E20). Cartilage canals were an extension of the vascularized perichondrium and its mesenchymal stem cell layers into the hyaline cartilage. The canals formed a complex network within the epiphysis and some of them penetrated into the SOC were they ended blind. The growth of the canals into the SOC was promoted by VEGF. As the development progressed the SOC increased in size and adjacent canals were incorporated into it. The canals contained chondroclasts, which opened the lacunae of hypertrophic chondrocytes, and this was followed by invasion of mesenchymal cells into the empty lacunae and formation of an osteoid layer. In older stages this layer mineralized and increased in thickness by addition of further cells. Outside the SOC cartilage canals are surrounded by osteoid, which is formed by the process of perichondral bone formation. We conclude that cartilage canals contribute to both perichondral and endochondral bone formation and that osteoblasts have the same origin in both processes.     

Rhinitis as an independent risk factor for adult-onset asthma

BACKGROUND: For many years, the association between asthma and rhinitis has primarily been attributed to a common allergic background. Recently, it has been suggested that asthma and rhinitis are associated in the absence of atopy. The nature of this association is not well known. OBJECTIVE: The purpose of this study, which was performed in a large, longitudinal community population, was to determine the extent to which rhinitis is an independent risk factor for adult-onset asthma. METHODS: We carried out a nested case-control study from the longitudinal cohort of the Tucson Epidemiologic Study of Obstructive Lung Diseases. One hundred seventy-three incident patients with physician-confirmed asthma were compared with 2177 subjects who reported no asthma or shortness of breath with wheezing. Potential risk factors, including the presence of rhinitis, were assessed before the onset of asthma (patients) or before the last completed survey (control subjects). RESULTS: Rhinitis was a significant risk factor for asthma (crude odds ratio, 4.13; 95% confidence interval, 2.88-5.92). After adjustment for years of follow-up, age, sex, atopic status, smoking status, and presence of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the magnitude of the association was reduced but still highly significant (adjusted odds ratio, 3.21; 95% confidence interval, 2.19-4.71). After stratification, rhinitis increased the risk of development of asthma by about 3 times both among atopic and nonatopic patients and by more than 5 times among patients in the highest IgE tertile. Patients with rhinitis with persistent and severe nasal symptoms and a personal history of physician-confirmed sinusitis had an additional increased risk of asthma development. CONCLUSION: We conclude that rhinitis is a significant risk factor for adult-onset asthma in both atopic and nonatopic subjects. The nature of the association between rhinitis and asthma is open to interpretation.