Resistance to growth inhibitory and apoptotic effects of phorbol ester and UCN-01 in aggressive cancer cell lines

7-Hydroxystaurosporine (UCN-01), a non-selective inhibitor of protein kinase C (PKC), and phorbol ester (PMA), a PKC activator, are undergoing clinical evaluations. We investigated the effects of UCN-01 and PMA on a panel of prostate cancer cell lines. While PMA induced p21WAF1/CIP1 and arrest growth of LNCaP cancer cells (IC50 = 0.5-1 nM), aggressive cancer cell lines (DU145, PC3, and PC3M) were resistant to PMA (IC50 >5000 nM). Low concentrations (25-50 nM) of UCN-01 abrogated PMA-induced p21 and growth arrest in LNCaP cells. These low doses of UCN-01 however did not inhibit proliferation of any prostate cancer cell line. PMA-sensitive LNCaP cells were resistant to clinically relevant concentrations of UCN-01 (IC50 = 1.2 microM), but UCN-01 inhibited growth of DU145 and PC3/3M with an IC50 of 200-400 nM. For comparison, PMA-sensitive HL60 leukemia cells were sensitive to UCN-01 due to rapid apoptosis caused by UCN-01. In PMA-resistant prostate cancer cells, UCN-01 downregulated cyclin D1, induced p21, caused morphological differentiation, and G1-phase arrest leading to slow cell death without caspase activation. Importantly, normal prostate epithelial cells (PrEC) were very sensitive to both PMA (IC50 = 0.2 nM) and UCN-01. In PrEC, UCN-01 downregulated cyclin D1 and arrest growth with an IC50 less than 100 nM. We conclude that loss of sensitivity to either UCN-01 or PMA accompanies progression of prostate cancer.     

Prevention of recurrence and prolonged survival in primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL) patients treated with adjuvant high-dose methylprednisolone

Five patients at risk for primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL) recurrence were treated with high-dose methylprednisolone (HDMP) to prevent 'trafficking' of malignant lymphocytes into the central nervous system (CNS). HDMP was chosen because of its ability to stabilize the 'blood brain barrier (BBB)'. Three men with newly diagnosed PCNSL, ages 62, 76 and 78y, whose survival was projected to be 6.6 months, began treatment after achieving complete response (CR) to initial radiation therapy alone and survived 27, 37 and 59 months after treatment. In none was death from recurrent disease in CNS but one patient did die of systemic non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) five years after PCNSL diagnosis. A 20 y old man was treated with HDMP after successful combined modality therapy and is alive 75+ months after initial diagnosis without evidence of disease recurrence. A 34 y old man relapsed after combined modality initial treatment and failed to respond to HDMP when treatment was begun after unsuccessful salvage therapy; he died of disease 12 months after initial diagnosis. There were no treatment complications. The promising results in this pilot study from the basis for a North Central Cancer Treatment Group (NCCTG) 96-73-51, a Phase 2 clinical trial of brain radiotherapy and HDMP for PCNSL patients 70y of age and older, a group of patients at high risk for toxicity from intensive combined modality therapy.     

Lymphangiomas in children: MR imaging

Seventeen lymphangiomas in 15 patients were imaged with magnetic resonance (MR) to define the nature, extent, and anatomic relationships of these lesions. The MR and pathologic findings were then compared to determine the histologic basis for the signal-intensity characteristics of these lesions. The signal intensity of 13 lesions was similar to or slightly less than that of muscle on T1-weighted images and greater than that of fat on T2-weighted images. This appearance correlated with the presence of ectatic lymphatic channels containing clear fluid on histologic section. Four lymphangiomas had high signal intensity, approximately equal to that of fat, on T1-weighted images, reflecting the presence of clotted blood or small cystic spaces with a higher ratio of fat to fluid. Sixteen of 17 lesions had visible septations on MR images. The authors' experience suggests that most lymphangiomas have a characteristic appearance on MR images. The information obtained with MR imaging can help in providing a preoperative diagnosis, in planning surgical resection, and in defining recurrence.     

Osteogenesis imperfecta: changes in noncollagenous proteins in bone

The noncollagenous proteins osteonectin, bone sialoprotein, osteocalcin, the small proteoglycan decorin (PG II), and alpha 2-HS glycoprotein (which is synthesized in the liver but highly concentrated in bone) were measured in extracts of cortical bone from 3 type I, 2 type II, 8 type III and 13 type IV patients with osteogenesis imperfecta (OI) and from 7 control subjects. Osteonectin was found to be reduced in the bone of all OI patients. The bone from severely affected type III OI patients contained the lowest levels of osteonectin. In contrast, bone sialoprotein was found to be elevated in the bones of OI patients. The highest levels were found in individuals classified as type IV patients. Osteocalcin and alpha 2-HS glycoprotein concentrations were increased in all OI patients. Decorin levels were not significantly altered in OI bones compared to controls. These changes in the concentrations of the noncollagenous proteins may contribute to the fragility of the OI bone by interfering with complete mineralization and/or normal tissue architecture.     

Low concentrations of the histone deacetylase inhibitor, depsipeptide (FR901228), increase expression of the Na(+)/I(-) symporter and iodine accumulation in poorly differentiated thyroid carcinoma cells.

Thyroid carcinoma accounts for the majority of deaths from endocrine cancers. A major cause of treatment failure is the inability to trap iodine. Chemotherapeutic agents with differentiating properties have been tried in an attempt to increase iodine uptake. We examined the ability of the novel histone deacetylase (HDAC) inhibitor, depsipeptide (FR901228), to modulate the expression of thyroid-specific genes. Four cell lines, two derived from follicular thyroid carcinomas (FTC 133 and FTC 236) and two derived from anaplastic thyroid carcinomas (SW-1736 and KAT-4) were used. In these four cell lines, a very low concentration of depsipeptide (1 ng/mL) increased histone acetylation and expression of both thyroglobulin and the Na(+)/I(-) symporter messenger RNAs. After 3 days, messenger RNA levels approached those of a normal thyroid control. Depsipeptide induced increases in (125)I accumulation indicated that a functional Na(+)/I(-) symporter protein was induced. Transient transfections indicate that the effects are mediated at least in part by a trans-activating factor. These in vitro results suggest that depsipeptide or other histone deacetylase inhibitors might be used clinically in thyroid carcinomas that are unable to trap iodine as an adjunct to radioiodine therapy.     

Deep venous thrombosis of the leg: US findings

In a prospective study, 121 consecutive patients with a clinical diagnosis of deep venous thrombosis of the leg were examined with real-time ultrasonography. The findings were correlated with the results of venography. The common femoral vein and the popliteal vein were evaluated for intraluminal echoes and compressibility, and the common femoral vein was also evaluated for an increase in diameter in response to the Valsalva maneuver. The superficial femoral vein and the calf veins were not evaluated. The results indicate that compressibility of the common femoral and popliteal veins is the best indication of deep venous thrombosis, with a sensitivity of 96% and a specificity of 97%. The accuracy of detection was not improved by including data from thrombus visualization or the response of the common femoral vein to the Valsalva maneuver.     

Risk factors in age-related maculopathy complicated by choroidal neovascularization

We evaluated previously reported and hypothesized risk factors for the development of age-related maculopathy (ARM) in a case-control study. We compared 26 patients with documented disciform scarring or choroidal neovascularization with 23 age- and sex-matched controls. Systolic and diastolic blood pressure, smoking history, glucose, lipoprotein profiles, and serum levels of vitamins A, C, and E did not differ significantly between the two groups. Statistically significant associations (P less than 0.05) identified by univariate analysis include degree of dermal elastotic degeneration in sun-exposed and sun-protected skin, white blood count, increasing age and small posterior lenticular opacities. Using an interactive multivariate model, only extent of elastosis in sun protected dermis, age and white blood count were predictive (Mult R = 0.652, P less than .001). Our data support the concept of a multifactorial etiology of ARM but suggest that generalized increased susceptibility of elastic fibers to photic or other degenerative stimuli is a new and important risk factor for choroidal neovascularization.     

Expression of bone sialoprotein (BSP) in developing human tissues

Summary Bone sialoprotein (BSP) and its messenger RNA were localized in developing human skeletal and nonskeletal tissues by means of immunohistochemistry andin situ hybridization. Both protein and mRNA were found in mature, bone-forming cells but not in their immature precursors. In addition, osteoclasts displayed positive immunostaining and high densities of autoradiographic grains byin situ hybridization experiments. BSP was expressed in fetal epiphyseal cartilage cells, particularly in hypertrophic chondrocytes of growth plates. Though neither the protein nor the mRNA were identified in a variety of other connective and nonconnective tissues, an unexpected finding was the expression of BSP in the trophoblast cells of placenta. These findings show that BSP is primarily an osteoblast-derived component of the bone matrix expressed at late stages of differentiation. We have also found that osteoclasts produce BSP, possibly as a mediator of cell attachment to bone.     

Relationship between a Clear-cut Alternative Noncardiac Diagnosis and 30-day Outcome in Emergency Department Patients with Chest Pain

Background: Accurate identification of patients with acute coronary syndromes (ACSs) in the emergency department (ED) remains problematic. Studies have not been able to identify a cohort of patients that are safe for immediate ED discharge; however, prior studies have not examined the utility of a clear‐cut alternative noncardiac diagnosis. Objectives: To compare the 30‐day event rate in ED chest pain patients who were diagnosed with a clear‐cut alternative noncardiac diagnosis with the 30‐day event rate in the cohort of patients in whom a definitive diagnosis could not be made in the ED. Methods: This was a prospective cohort study of consecutive ED patients with potential ACS. Data included demographics, medical and cardiac history, laboratory and electrocardiogram results, and whether or not the treating physician ascribed the condition to a clear‐cut alternative noncardiac diagnosis. The main outcome was death, acute myocardial infarction (AMI), or revascularization within 30 days, as determined by phone follow‐up or medical record review. Results: The investigators enrolled 1,995 patients in the ED who had potential ACSs. Overall, 77 had a final hospital diagnosis of AMI (4%). Within 30 days, 73 patients received revascularization (4%), and 26 died (1%). There were 599 (30%) patients given a clear‐cut alternative noncardiac diagnosis. Comparing the patients with a clear‐cut alternative noncardiac diagnosis with those without an obvious noncardiac diagnosis, the presence of a clear‐cut alternative noncardiac diagnosis was associated with a reduced risk of an in‐hospital triple‐composite endpoint (death, MI, and revascularization), with a risk ratio of 0.32 (95% confidence interval [CI] = 0.19 to 0.55) and 30‐day triple‐composite endpoint with a risk ratio of 0.45 (95% CI = 0.29 to 0.69); however, patients with a clear‐cut alternative noncardiac diagnosis still had a 4% event rate at 30 days (95% CI = 2.4% to 5.6%). Conclusions: In the ED chest pain patient, the presence of a clear‐cut alternative noncardiac diagnosis reduces the likelihood of a composite outcome of death and cardiovascular events within 30 days. However, it does not reduce the event rate to an acceptable level to allow ED discharge of these patients.