Theory of mind and motion perception in schizophrenia

This study investigated the relationship between theory of mind (ToM) deficits and visual perception in patients with schizophrenia (N=52; 17 remitted and unmedicated) compared with healthy controls (N=30). ToM was assessed with the Eyes Test, which asked participants to choose which of 4 words best described the mental state of a person whose eyes were depicted in a photograph. Visual perception was evaluated with form and motion coherence threshold measurements. Results revealed that patients with schizophrenia (both remitted and nonremitted) showed deficits on the Eyes Test and the motion coherence task. ToM dysfunctions were associated with higher motion coherence thresholds and more severe negative symptoms. This suggests that ToM deficits are related to motion perception dysfunctions, which indicates a possible role of motion-sensitive areas in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia.     

Coordinated multivesicular release at a mammalian ribbon synapse

Traditional models of synaptic transmission hold that release sites within an active zone operate independently. Although the release of multiple vesicles (multivesicular release; MVR) from single active zones occurs at some central synapses, MVR is not thought to require coordination among release sites. Ribbon synapses seem to be optimized to release many vesicles over an extended period, but the dynamics of MVR at ribbon synapses is unknown. We examined MVR at a ribbon synapse in a retinal slice preparation using paired recordings from presynaptic rod bipolar and postsynaptic AII amacrine cells. When evoked release was highly desynchronized, discrete postsynaptic events were larger than quantal miniature excitatory postsynaptic currents (mEPSCs) but had the same time course. The amplitude of these multiquantal mEPSCs, which seem to arise from the essentially simultaneous release of multiple vesicles, was reduced by lowering release probability. The release synchrony reflected in these multivesicular events suggests that release within an active zone is coordinated during MVR.     

Shashi XLMR syndrome: report of a second family

This report describes a family with mental retardation in two brothers. The pedigree is consistent with either X-linked mental retardation or autosomal recessive inheritance. The clinical features consist of coarse face, prominent lower lip, large testes, and obesity. This same constellation of findings was observed in a family with X-linked mental retardation (XLMR) reported by Shashi et al. [2000: Am J Hum Genet 66:469-479]. Furthermore, haplotype analysis was consistent with localization of the Shashi XLMR syndrome in Xq26-q27. Thus, the family likely represents a second occurrence of the Shashi XLMR syndrome.     

Preantral follicle culture as a novel in vitro assay in reproductive toxicology testing in mammalian oocytes

The most common genetic disorder in humans, trisomy, is caused predominantly by errors in chromosome segregation during oogenesis. Isolated mouse oocytes resuming meiosis and progressing to metaphase II in vitro have recently been used to assess targets, aneugenic potential and sensitivity of oocytes to chemical exposures. In order to extend in vitro maturation tests to earlier stages of oogenesis, an in vitro assay with mouse preantral follicle cultures has been established. It permits the identification of direct and also indirect effects of environmental chemicals on the somatic compartment, the follicle and theca cells, that may lead to disturbances of oocyte growth, maturation and chromosome segregation. Early preantral follicles from prepubertal female mice are cultured in microdroplets for 12 days under strictly controlled conditions. The follicle-enclosed oocytes resume maturation, develop to metaphase II and become in vitro ovulated within 16 h after a physiological ovulatory stimulus with recombinant human gonadotrophins and epidermal growth factor. These oocytes grown and matured in vitro possess normal barrel-shaped spindles with well-aligned chromosomes. Their chromosomes segregate with high fidelity during anaphase I. The model aneugen colchicine induced a meiotic arrest and aneuploidy in these in vitro grown, follicle-enclosed oocytes in a dose-dependent manner, comparable to in vivo tests. Therefore, preantral follicle culture appears to provide an effective and reliable method to assess the influences of environmental mutagens, pharmaceutical agents and potentially endocrine disrupting chemicals on the fidelity of female meiosis.     

Dual role of interleukin-4 (IL-4) in pulmonary paracoccidioidomycosis: endogenous IL-4 can induce protection or exacerbation of disease depending on the host genetic pattern

Resistance to paracoccidioidomycosis, the most important endemic mycosis in Latin America, is thought to be primarily mediated by cellular immunity and the production of gamma interferon. To assess the role of interleukin-4 (IL-4), a Th2 cytokine, pulmonary paracoccidioidomycosis in IL-4-depleted susceptible (B10.A) and intermediate (C57BL/6) mice was studied. Two different protocols were used to neutralize endogenous IL-4 in B10.A mice: 1 mg of anti-IL-4 monoclonal antibody (MAb)/week and 8 mg 1 day before intratracheal infection with 10(6) Paracoccidioides brasiliensis yeast cells. Unexpectedly, both protocols enhanced pulmonary infection but did not alter the levels of pulmonary cytokines and specific antibodies. Since in a previous work it was verified that C57BL/6 mice genetically deficient in IL-4 were more resistant to P. brasiliensis infection, we also investigated the effect of IL-4 depletion in this mouse strain. Treatment with the MAb at 1 mg/week led to less severe pulmonary disease associated with impaired synthesis of Th2 cytokines in the lungs and liver of control C57BL/6 mice. Conversely, in IL-4-depleted C57BL/6 mice, increased levels of tumor necrosis factor alpha and IL-12 were found in the lungs and liver, respectively. In addition, higher levels of immunoglobulin G2a (IgG2a) and lower levels of IgG1 antibodies were produced by IL-4-depleted mice than by control mice. Lung pathologic findings were equivalent in IL-4-depleted and untreated B10.A mice. In IL-4-depleted C57BL/6 mice, however, smaller and well-organized granulomas replaced the more extensive lesions that developed in untreated mice. These results clearly showed that IL-4 can have a protective or a disease-promoting effect in pulmonary paracoccidioidomycosis depending on the genetic background of the host.     

Tissue fixation effects on immunohistochemical staining of caspase-3 in brain tissue.

Fixation methods for tissue often vary amongst clinical and research laboratories. To evaluate the effects of fixation method on studies of brain tissue, we examined immunohistochemical outcomes amongst 2 fixatives, 4 caspase-3 antibodies, and 2 species (human infants and piglets). Fixatives were 10% neutral buffered formalin (NBF) or 10% NBF and glacial acetic acid (FAA). Antibodies for caspase-3 were commercially obtained and included 2 for active caspase-3, and 2 for procaspase-3 (CASP3 and CPP32). Immunohistochemical staining of caspase-3 varied with fixation method, with the greatest effect of fixation method observed for the active caspase-3 antibodies and this effect was present in both species. In NBF-fixed tissue, active caspase-3 immunoreactivity was only visible microscopically, and was specific to neuronal cell bodies. In FAA-fixed tissue, active caspase-3 immunoreactivity was visible macroscopically, and predominantly present in fiber tracts and fasciculi compared with neuronal bodies. Fixation and species differences were also identified for the procaspase-3 antibodies, CASP3 and CPP32, where FAA-fixed pig tissue showed abundant staining of blood vessels that were not observed in the NBF-fixed pig tissue or in the human tissue. This study characterizes differences in immunohistochemical outcomes using commercially available antibodies for caspase-3, according to tissue fixation method and species.     

Specific IgE determination to Ani s 1, a major allergen from Anisakis simplex, is a useful tool for diagnosis.

BACKGROUND: The most serious limitation of the serodiagnosis of parasitoses is the occurrence of cross-reactions. OBJECTIVE: The possible use of Anisakis simplex major allergen Ani s 1 for diagnosis. PATIENTS AND METHODS: Forty-nine non-fish-allergic patients with Anisakis simplex hypersensitivity, 21 patients without allergic episodes suffering intestinal anisakiasis with obstruction of the intestinal lumen, and 10 unrelated sera as a control were included in this study to determine specific immunoglobulin (Ig)E and IgG to Anisakis simplex major allergen Ani s 1 by immunoblotting. RESULTS: Eighty-six percent of patients with Anisakis simplex hypersensitivity showed specific IgE directed to Ani s 1. Identical result was obtained for IgG detection in this group. Among patients with intestinal anisakiasis, 86% showed specific IgE, but only 29% had specific IgG (P < 0.001, two-tailed Fisher exact test). One of the 10 control subjects was positive both for IgE and IgG (P < 0.001). CONCLUSIONS: Determination of specific IgE directed to Anisakis simplex major allergen Ani s 1 is a useful tool for the diagnosis of hypersensitivity and intestinal anisakiasis. Further, measurement of specific IgG directed to Anisakis simplex major allergen Ani s 1 is only valid for Anisakis simplex allergy.     

Distribution of acid alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase among human T lymphocyte subsets

Human T lymphocyte subsets, identified by means of OKT3, 4 and 8 monoclonal antibodies, were isolated by a fluorescence activated cell sorter (FACS IV) and analyzed for distribution of alpha-naphthyl acetate esterase (ANAE) activity. As compared to OKT8⁺ lymphocytes a higher proportion of OKT4⁺ lymphocytes was ANAE-positive exibiting a spot or dot-like pattern in the cytoplasm. OKT8 and 4 positive subsets showed a similar ANAE distribution in diffuse granular form. Although OKT4 and OKT8 populations presented a different ANAE dot-like reactivity, this marker did not allow as clear a distinction between them as that reported for T_G and T_M lymphocytes.     

Congenital afibrinogenaemia caused by uniparental isodisomy of chromosome 4 containing a novel 15-kb deletion involving fibrinogen Aalpha-chain gene

Among rare inherited deficiencies of coagulation factors, congenital afibrinogenaemia is characterised by the lack of fibrinogen in plasma. In the last few years, several genetic defects underlying afibrinogenaemia (mostly point mutations) have been described in the fibrinogen gene cluster. In this study, the molecular basis responsible for afibrinogenaemia in a Thai proband was defined. Point mutation screening was accomplished by directly sequencing the three fibrinogen genes. The impossibility to amplify fibrinogen Aalpha-chain gene (FGA) exons 5 and 6 suggested the presence of a homozygous deletion. A specific long-range PCR assay enabled the identification of a novel 15-kb deletion, representing the largest afibrinogenaemia-causing deletion described so far. Direct sequencing of the deletion junction allowed mapping of the breakpoints in FGA intron 4 and in the intergenic region between Aalpha- and Bbeta-chain genes. Since the mutation was inherited only from the mother and nonpaternity was ruled out, a maternal uniparental disomy (UPD) was hypothesised. UPD test, carried out with markers covering the whole chromosome 4, revealed that maternal isodisomy was responsible for homozygosity of the 15-kb deletion in the proband. The apparently normal phenotype of the proband, except for afibrinogenaemia, suggests that UPD for chromosome 4 is clinically silent. This represents the first case of a documented complete isodisomy of chromosome 4 causing the phenotypic expression of a recessive disorder. In silico analyses of the regions surrounding the breakpoints suggested that the 15-kb deletion might have originated from an inappropriate repair of a double-strand break by the nonhomologous end joining mechanism.     

Interphase fluorescence in situ hybridization analysis of del(11)(q23) and del(17)(p13) in chronic lymphocytic leukemia. a study of 40 early-onset patients

Although B-cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia (B-CLL) is the most common form of leukemia in Western countries, little is known about its underlying molecular abnormalities and their prognostic significance, particularly for use in early therapeutic interventions in young patients. As TP53 tumor suppressor gene abnormalities and 11q23 deletions are reported to be prognostically adverse in hematologic malignancies, we used interphase fluorescence in situ hybridization to analyze their incidence and prognostic significance in young B-CLL patients. Bone marrow samples from 40 untreated B-CLL patients at diagnosis were studied using five yeast artificial chromosome clones from the 11q23.1 approximately q23.3 chromosomal region and a probe specific for the 17p13.1 locus. Twenty-three patients (58%) carried 11q deletions. Interestingly, 16 of 17 patients (94%) who showed early disease progression exhibited this chromosomal abnormality, suggesting that 11q deletions may help to identify more aggressive disease in early stage patients. In contrast, monoallelic TP53 deletions were found in all of the patients. The TP53 and 11q deletions were only present in a proportion of the clonal B-cells, which suggests that they are secondary events in B-CLL.