Performance of the TechLab C. DIFF CHEK-60 enzyme immunoassay (EIA) in combination with the C. difficile Tox A/B II EIA kit, the Triage C. difficile panel immunoassay, and a cytotoxin assay for diagnosis of Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea

We compared a recently marketed enzyme immunoassay for glutamate dehydrogenase (GDH), TechLab's C. DIFF CHEK-60 (TL-GDH), in combination with the C. difficile Tox A/B II enzyme immunoassay (Tox-A/B) with (i) the Triage C. difficile test, which detects both GDH (TR-GDH) and toxin A (TR-Tox-A); (ii) an in-house cytotoxin assay (C-Tox); and (iii) stool cultures for C. difficile. All C. difficile isolates were tested for the presence of the toxin genes by PCR. If a toxin gene-positive strain of Clostridium difficile was recovered and a toxin was detected by any method, the result was considered to be truly positive. Eighty-seven of 93 and 79 of 93 C. difficile culture-positive samples were also TL-GDH and TR-GDH positive, respectively. No test was able to detect toxin in all samples with true-positive results. Tox-A/B and TR-Tox-A in combination with the GDH detection tests and C-Tox were able to identify 52 and 50 samples with true-positive results. Tox-A/B and TR-Tox-A would have missed 15 and 31% of cases of C. difficile-associated diarrhea, respectively, if used alone.     

CD4+ T cells determine the ability of spleen cells from F1 hybrid mice to induce neonatal tolerance to alloantigens and autoimmunity in parental mice

Spleen cells from F₁ hybrid mice injected into newborn parental mice induce a state of cytolytic unresponsiveness to the corresponding alloantigens. However, these mice develop a transient autoimmune syndrome characterized by the production of multiple autoantibodies and glomerulonephritis. Previous reports indicated that the depletion of F₁ donor T cells, shortly prior the injection into parental mice, does not interfere with any of these events. Here, we have explored whether the continuous absence of T cells in F₁ mice influences the ability of their spleen cells to induce neonatal tolerance to alloantigens and the associated autoimmune manifestations. Our results revealed that spleen cells from athymic (BALB/c × C57BL/6) F₁ hybrid (CB6F₁) nulnu mice or from euthymic CB6F₁ mice depleted from birth of CD4⁺ T cells, but not of CD8⁺ T cells, are unable to induce neonatal tolerance to alloantigens and autoimmune manifestations. By contrast, the partial reconstitution of T cells in CB6F¹ nulnu mice, after the neonatal graft of a syngeneic thymus, restored the capacity of spleen cells from these mice to induce tolerance and autoimmunity when injected into newborn BALB/c mice. These results demonstrate that the functional defect of spleen cells from athymic CB6F₁ nulnu mice to induce neonatal tolerance to alloantigens is directly related to the long-term absence of mature CD4⁺ T cells. Interestingly, a new increase in the titers of anti-DNA Ab was observed when spleen cells from athymic CB6F₁ nulnu mice were injected into adult BALB/c mice that had been tolerized at birth with normal CB6F₁ spleen cells. This finding indicates that B cells from CB6F₁ nulnu mice recover their capacity to interact with alloreactive Th2 cells when they are placed into mice having functional CD4⁺ T cells. These data indicate that the continuous absence of CD4⁺ T cells causes a reversible functional defect in F₁ spleen cells that determines their inability to induce neonatal tolerance and autoimmunity.     

Assessment of Antibody Response Elicited by a 7-valent Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine in Pediatric Human Immunodeficiency Virus Infection

We investigated antibody responses against pneumococci of serotypes 6B, 14, and 23F in 56 children and adolescents with perinatal human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection who were vaccinated with 7-valent pneumococcal conjugate vaccine. Overall immune responses differed greatly between serotypes. Correlation coefficients between immunoglobulin G (IgG) measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and functional antibodies measured by a flow cytometry opsonophagocytosis assay (OPA) varied with serotype and time points studied. After 3 months of administering a second PCV7 dose we got the highest correlation (with significant r values of 0.754, 0.414, and 0.593 for serotypes 6B, 14, and 23F, respectively) but no significant increase in IgG concentration and OPA titers compared to the first dose. We defined a responder to a serotype included in the vaccine with two criteria: frequency of at least twofold OPA and ELISA increases for each serotype and frequency of conversion from negative to positive OPA levels. Responders varied from 43.9% to 46.3%, 28.5% to 50.0%, and 38.0% to 50.0% for serotypes 6B, 14, and 23F, respectively, depending on the response criterion. The present research highlights the importance of demonstrating vaccine immunogenicity with suitable immunological endpoints in immunocompromised patients and also the need to define how much antibody is required for protection from different serotypes, since immunogenicity differed significantly between serotypes.     

Impaired Recovery of CD4+ Cell Counts Following Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy in Drug-Naïve Patients Coinfected with Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Hepatitis C Virus

Coinfection with the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and the hepatitis C virus (HCV) is highly prevalent in southern Europe. However, there are few and contradictory data about the effect of HCV carriage on the response to highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART). In this study, the recovery of CD4+ T cells following HAART among antiretroviral-naïve patients seropositive for HIV with and without HCV coinfection was investigated. Two hundred one HIV-infected patients without previous exposure to antiretroviral drugs were included in the study. HCV coinfection was detected in 123 (61%) patients. The time to recover 200 CD4+ cells/µl was longer in the HCV-positive group (P<0.001). In a Cox model, HCV infection and lack of persistent HIV viremia (defined as <200 copies/ml) were associated with the time to recover 200 CD4+ cells/µl. The mean increase in CD4+ cell counts was lower in the HCV-positive group during the first year of therapy. HIV/HCV-coinfected patients naïve for antiretroviral therapy show a delayed recovery of CD4+ cell counts after starting HAART.     

The effects of co-culture with human fibroblasts on human embryo development in vitro and implantation

In a human in-vitro fertilization (IVF) programme, the effect of co- culture of embryos with human fibroblasts was evaluated with respect to pregnancy rate and embryo development. Patients were included in the study after giving informed written consent. The IVF treatments were randomly assigned by stratification of both age (<36 versus > or =36 years) and previous IVF attempts (yes versus no). After fertilization was established, the zygotes were transferred to a 4-well dish with or without fibroblasts and cultured for 2 days. On the third day after ovum pick-up (OPU), cell number and quality [5 (good) to 1 (poor)] of the embryos were scored and a maximum of three embryos was transferred. Supernumerary embryos of good quality were cryopreserved. The design of this study was a group sequential trial with the objective of detecting differences between pregnancy rates following IVF with conventional incubation or incubation in co-culture with fibroblasts. This design included one evaluation at half-way data collection. In the study, 148 patients had an OPU, of whom 77 were allocated to the co-culture group. There was no statistically significant difference in pregnancy rate, cell number and embryo quality between the two groups. The ongoing pregnancy rate per embryo transfer was 27% in co-culture and 30% in the conventional culture group. The implantation rates per transferred embryo were 17 and 18% respectively. Using a multivariate logistic regression model for the probability of ongoing pregnancies, the odds ratio of co-culture, adjusted for age and previous IVF attempts, was not statistically significant. In conclusion, co-culture with human fibroblasts does not contribute to an improvement of embryo quality nor to a higher pregnancy rate after IVF in an unselected group of patients.      

Renal-hepatic-pancreatic dysplasia: an autosomal recessive malformation.

We report two brothers with a cystic malformation of the kidneys, liver, and pancreas. In both cases the malformation was fatal and the children died shortly after birth. The pathological findings, consisting of multicystic dysplastic kidneys, dilated and dysgenetic bile ducts, dilated pancreatic ducts, and polysplenia, correspond to those reported by Ivemark as renal-hepatic-pancreatic dysplasia. Many polymalformation syndromes include cystic affectation of these three organs, so this syndrome could be an isolated entity or a final common pathway of response of these organs to a variety of developmental disturbances, which could also include splenic abnormalities. We propose an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance for renal-hepatic-pancreatic dysplasia.     

Prevalence and risk factors of tinea unguium and tinea pedis in the general population in Spain

This study prospectively evaluated the prevalence and risk factors of tinea unguium and tinea pedis in the general adult population in Madrid, Spain. One thousand subjects were clinically examined, and samples of nails and scales from the interdigital spaces of the feet were taken from those patients presenting with signs or symptoms of onychomycosis and/or tinea pedis, respectively. In addition, a sample from the fourth interdigital space of both feet was collected from all individuals with a piece of sterilized wool carpet. Tinea unguium was defined as a positive direct examination with potassium hydroxide and culture of the etiological agent from subjects with clinically abnormal nails. Patients with positive dermatophyte cultures of foot specimens were considered to have tinea pedis. The prevalence of tinea unguium was 2.8% (4.0% for men and 1.7% for women), and the prevalence of tinea pedis was 2.9% (4.2% for men and 1.7% for women). The etiological agents of tinea unguium were identified as Trichopyton rubrum (82.1%), followed by Trichopyton mentagrophytes var. interdigitale (14.3%) and Trichopyton tonsurans (3.5%). Trichophyton rubrum (44.8%) and Trichophyton mentagrophytes (44.8%), followed by Epidermophyton floccosum (7%) and T. tonsurans (3.4%), were the organisms isolated from patients with tinea pedis. The percentage of subjects who suffered simultaneously from both diseases was 1.1% (1.7% for men and 0.6% for women). In a multivariate logistic regression analysis, age (relative risk [RR], 1.03) and gender (RR, 2.50) were independent risk factors for tinea unguium, while only gender (RR, 2.65) was predictive for the occurrence of tinea pedis. In both analyses, the presence of one of the two conditions was associated with a higher risk for the appearance of the other disease (RR, >25).     

Staphylococcus aureus induces platelet aggregation via a fibrinogen-dependent mechanism which is independent of principal platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa fibrinogen-binding domains.

Platelet aggregation by bacteria is felt to play an important role in the pathogenesis of infective endocarditis. However, the mechanisms involved in bacterium-induced platelet aggregation are not well-defined. In the present study, we examined the mechanisms by which Staphylococcus aureus causes rabbit platelet aggregation in vitro. In normal plasma, the kinetics of S. aureus-induced platelet aggregation were rapid and biphasic. The onset and magnitude of aggregation phase 1 varied with the bacterium-platelet ratio, with maximal aggregation observed at a ratio of 5:1. The onset of aggregation phase 2 was delayed in the presence of apyrase (an ADP hydrolase), suggesting that this later aggregation phase may be triggered by secreted ADP. The onset of aggregation phase 2 was delayed in the presence of prostaglandin I2-treated platelets, and this phase was absent when paraformaldehyde-fixed platelets were used, implicating platelet activation in this process. Platelet aggregation phase 2 was dependent on S. aureus viability and an intact bacterial cell wall, and it was mitigated by antibody directed against staphylococcal clumping factor (a fibrinogen-binding protein) and by the cyclooxygenase inhibitor indomethacin. Similarly, aggregation phase 2 was either delayed or absent in three distinct transposon-induced S. aureus mutants with reduced capacities to bind fibrinogen in vitro. In addition, a synthetic pentadecapeptide, corresponding to the staphylococcal binding domain in the C terminus of the fibrinogen delta-chain, blocked aggregation phase 2. However, phase 2 of aggregation was not inhibited by two synthetic peptides (alone or in combination) analogous to the two principal fibrinogen-binding domains on the platelet glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa integrin receptor: (i) a recognition site on the IIIa molecule for the Arg-Gly-Asp (RGD) sequence of the fibrinogen alpha-chain and (ii) a recognition site on the IIb molecule for a dodecapeptide sequence of the fibrinogen delta-chain. This differs from ADP-induced platelet aggregation, which relies on an intact platelet GP IIb/IIIa receptor with an accessible RGD sequence and dodecapeptide recognition site for fibrinogen. Furthermore, a monoclonal antibody directed against the RGD recognition site on rabbit platelet GP IIb/IIIa receptors failed to inhibit rabbit platelet aggregation by S. aureus. Collectively, these data suggest that S. aureus-induced platelet aggregation requires bacterial binding to fibrinogen but is not principally dependent upon the two major fibrinogen-binding domains on the platelet GP IIb/IIIa integrin receptor, the RGD and dodecapeptide recognition sites.     

Comparison of Broth Microdilution Method Using Haemophilus Test Medium and Agar Dilution Method for Susceptibility Testing of Eikenella corrodens

Susceptibility testing of Eikenella corrodens is usually performed by a Mueller-Hinton sheep blood agar dilution (AD) method. However, this method is impractical for testing only a few strains. We compared AD with the broth microdilution method using Haemophilus test medium (HTM) in order to determine the susceptibility of 36 clinical isolates of E. corrodens to eight antimicrobial agents. MICs obtained by the HTM method yielded 95.5 and 84% agreement (within 2 and 1 log₂ dilutions, respectively) with those obtained by AD. The HTM method with incubation in CO₂ for 48 h was highly reproducible and constitutes an easy alternative for antimicrobial susceptibility testing of E. corrodens.     

Histological study of the proximal and distal segments of the embryonic outflow tract and great arteries

The normal development of the ventricular outlets and proximal region of the great arteries is a controversial subject. It is known that the conus, truncus arteriosus (truncus), and aortic sac participate; however, there are some doubts as to the actual prospective fate of the truncus. Some authors propose that it gives origin to the proximal region of the great arteries and that the myocardial cells of its wall become smooth muscle. Nevertheless, others think that the truncus only forms the arterial valve apparatus and that therefore the myocardial cells transform into fibroblasts. As a first approach to beginning to elucidate which process occurs, the aim of this article was to study the histological changes in the wall of these components of the developing heart in chick embryos whose hearts had been labeled at the truncoconal boundary at stage 22HH, tracing the changes up to stage 36HH. Also, the histological constitution of the wall of the pulmonary arterial trunk and its valve apparatus were studied in the posthatching and adult hearts of chickens and rats. The conus and truncus walls were always encircled by a myocardial sleeve from the outset of their development. Between stages 26HH to 28HH, the truncal myocardial cells adjacent to the mesenchymal tissue of the ridges began to lose cell-to-cell contacts and invaded the extracellular matrix. At stage 24HH, the aortic sac began to project into the pericardial cavity and became divided into two channels by the aortic-pulmonary septum at stage 26HH. The wall of the aortic sac is mostly constituted by a compact mesenchymal tissue. Initially, it does not have smooth muscle but this starts to appear at stage 30HH. The insertion ring of the valves, a broad structure, was formed by mesenchymal tissue. Both structures were always covered by a myocardial sleeve. The leaflets developed from the truncal ridges, the segment immediately proximal to the aortic sac. Our results indicate that the proximal region of the pulmonary and aortic arteries do not originate from the truncus arteriosus; rather, we found that they take origin from the aortic sac. Thus, our findings agree with the proposal that the myocardial cells of the external sleeve of the truncus become fibroblastic and suggest that the insertion ring of the arterial valves has a dual origin: fibroblasts produced by truncal myocardial transdiferentiation and the mesenchymal tissue of the proximal region of the truncal ridges, while the leaflets have their origin from the truncal ridges. We discuss the fact that, because the truncus arteriosus does not give origin to the trunks of the aortic and pulmonary arteries, it may be necessary to modify terminology. Based on our results, together with the new findings obtained by in vivo labeling, immunostaining, a chimeric approach, and ultrastructural studies, we propose a developmental model that correlates the fate of the conus, truncus, and aortic sac with the normal morphogenesis of the ventricular outlet tracts and the trunks of the great arteries. (c) 2005 Wiley-Liss, Inc.