Influence of inhaled corticosteroids on community-acquired pneumonia in patients with bronchial asthma

OBJECTIVE: The aim of the present study was to evaluate the influence of inhaled corticosteroids (ICS) on community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in patients with asthma. PATIENTS AND METHODS: All asthmatic patients who required hospitalization for CAP from the beginning of 1989 through December 2001 were enrolled in this retrospective study. Patients who used oral corticosteroids daily were excluded. Patients were divided into two groups based on whether or not they used ICS, and we analyzed clinical characteristics of the pneumonia. Sixty-two patients (28 males, 34 females; mean age, 54.5 years) were enrolled in this study. Thirty-seven of 62 patients used ICS, with the mean dosage being 777.9 microg/day. RESULTS: We found no significant differences between the two groups with regard to mean age, serum albumin level, duration of asthma, pulmonary function and frequency of intravenous infusion of corticosteroids in the outpatient department. There were no significant differences in body temperature, white blood cell count, and CRP value upon admission between the two groups. Differences were not significant in the period of resolution of the pneumonia or in the frequency of pathogens identified between the two groups. CONCLUSION: ICS therapy appears to have no influence on CAP in patients with asthma. We recommend that ICS should be continued to control asthma with adequate antibiotic therapy when asthmatic patients have CAP.     

Orchidectomy and hormonal therapy of prostate cancer

The objective of this study is to document the use of hormonal therapies in treating prostate cancer in Ontario in the last decade. Drug utilization data were extracted from the Ontario Drug Benefit Program, while surgical orchidectomy rates were calculated from Hospital Medical Records Institute data. The provincial rate of orchidectomy showed a 55% relative increase from 1981 to 1991. There was a 6.4-fold variation in orchidectomy rates among counties in Ontario. As well, the expenditures on new hormonal therapies rose 38-fold between 1985 and 1990, and doubled between 1990 and 1992. There was no consistent relationship between use of orchidectomy and hormonal drug therapy at the county level. We conclude that both forms of hormonal therapy have increased in Ontario. The wide variation in surgical orchidectomy rates observed in Ontario suggests differences in practice styles and possible medical uncertainty. Guidelines for the hormonal therapy of prostate cancer may be a helpful step forward for practitioners and patients.     

Coronary artery perforation successfully treated with tris-acryl gelatin microsphere embolisation

We describe a case of coronary artery perforation in a 76-year-old man, successfully treated by tris-acryl gelatin microsphere embolisation. This novel interventional embolic material is used in interventional radiology for arterial embolisation. We believe that this is the first report of its use for a coronary artery perforation.     

Celecoxib versus diclofenac plus omeprazole in high-risk arthritis patients: results of a randomized double-blind trial

BACKGROUND & AIMS: The gastric safety of cyclooxgenase-2 inhibitors and prophylactic antisecretory therapy in high-risk arthritis patients is unclear. We studied the ulcer incidence and factors predicting ulcer recurrence in a prospective, double-blinded trial. METHODS: We studied patients who presented with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug-associated ulcer bleeding. After ulcer healing, patients who were negative for Helicobacter pylori were randomly assigned to celecoxib 200 mg twice a day plus omeprazole placebo once daily or diclofenac 75 mg twice daily plus omeprazole 20 mg once daily for 6 months. Patients underwent endoscopy if they developed recurrent bleeding. Those without recurrent events underwent endoscopy at their last follow-up visit. RESULTS: Two hundred eighty-seven patients were enrolled; 24 had recurrent gastrointestinal complications. Among 259 patients without events, 222 underwent endoscopy (116 received celecoxib and 106 received diclofenac plus omeprazole). The probability of recurrent ulcers in 6 months was 18.7% in the celecoxib group and 25.6% in the diclofenac plus omeprazole group (difference, -6.7%; 95% CI: -17.8% to 3.9%) (P = 0.21). Combining bleeding and endoscopic ulcers, 24.1% in the celecoxib group and 32.3% in the diclofenac plus omeprazole group had recurrent ulcers in 6 months (difference, -8.2%; 95% CI: -19.5% to 2.9%) (P = 0.15). Treatment-induced significant dyspepsia (hazard ratio, 5.3; 95% CI: 2.6-10.8), age > or =75 (hazard ratio, 2.0; 95% CI: 1.1-3.5), and comorbidity (hazard ratio, 2.1; 95% CI: 1.2-3.7) independently predicted ulcer recurrence. CONCLUSIONS: Among patients with previous ulcer bleeding, neither celecoxib nor diclofenac plus omeprazole adequately prevents ulcer recurrence. Treatment-induced significant dyspepsia is an indication for endoscopic evaluation.     

The natural history of immunoglobulin a nephropathy among patients with hematuria and minimal proteinuria

PURPOSE: To determine the natural history of immunoglobulin (Ig) A nephropathy among patients who presented with hematuria and minimal proteinuria, and factors associated with the development of adverse clinical events, such as proteinuria. SUBJECTS AND METHODS: In Hong Kong, all patients who present with isolated hematuria are referred for renal biopsy after urologic diseases are ruled out. We reviewed the clinical course of 72 consecutive patients with histologically confirmed IgA nephropathy who presented with hematuria and minimal proteinuria (0.4 g/day or less). All patients were normotensive and had normal renal function at presentation. Adverse events were defined as proteinuria greater than 1 g per day, hypertension, or impaired renal function (serum creatinine level 120 micromol/L or estimated creatinine clearance < 70 mL per minute).RESULTS: The mean (+/- SD) age at presentation was 27 +/- 8 years; 56 (78%) were female. Nine patients (13%) had grade 2 histologic lesions. During a median follow-up of 7 years, 32 patients (44%) developed adverse events: 24 (33%) developed proteinuria of 1 g per day or more, 19 (26%) became hypertensive, and 5 (7%) developed impaired renal function. Another 30 patients (42%) had persistently abnormal urinalysis examinations. Only 10 patients (14%) had complete resolution of hematuria. The median time for progression from proteinuria (> l g/day) to renal impairment was 84 months (range 56 to 132). In a multivariate analysis, age at presentation (relative risk [RR] per 10 years of age = 2.0; 95% confidence interval [CI], 1.2 to 3.4) and histologic grade (grade 2 versus grade 1, RR = 4.5; 95% CI, 1.7 to 12) were independent predictors of developing an adverse event.CONCLUSIONS: IgA nephropathy that presents with hematuria and minimal proteinuria is usually a progressive disease. Life-long follow-up with regular monitoring of blood pressure and proteinuria is recommended.     

CD34+ selection of autologous peripheral blood stem cells for transplantation following sequential cycles of high-dose therapy and mobilization in multiple myeloma

A potential problem of autologous transplantation in the treatment of multiple myeloma (MM) is the infusion of tumor cells. CD34+ selection has been used to purge autografts in MM and it is also possible to reduce tumour cell contamination of autografts by cytotoxic drug therapy prior to peripheral blood stem cell (PBSC) collection. To evaluate the effectiveness of a protocol combining multiple cycles of high-dose therapy and CD34+ selection to reduce tumour contamination of PBSC autografts, 34 MM patients were entered on a treatment schedule comprising two sequential cycles of mobilisation, CD34+ selection, and transplantation following high-dose therapy. In the second cycle of mobilisation there was a five-fold reduction in tumour contamination of the stem cell harvest (0.5 x 106/kg) compared with the first cycle (2.5 x 106/kg). In the 97 CD34+ selection procedures performed a median of 185 x 108 mononuclear cells (MNC) were processed yielding a median of 0.98 x 108 CD34+-enriched cells. CD34+ cells were enriched 68-fold from 1. 3% to 88.6%. The median yield of CD34+ cells was 42.2%. Following CD34+ selection the tumour cell contamination of the leukapheresis product was reduced by a median of 2.7 logs. This study demonstrates that in multiple myeloma a significant reduction in the malignant contamination of stem cell autografts can be achieved by combining the in vivo purging effect of cytotoxic therapy with in vitro purging by CD34+ selection.     

Comparison of myeloma cell contamination of bone marrow and peripheral blood stem cell harvests

It could be speculated for patients with myeloma and other lymphoproliferative disorders that peripheral blood stem cells may be preferable to bone marrow for autologous transplantation because they may be less contaminated by neoplastic cells. To test this possibility, the immunoglobulin heavy chain gene rearrangement and limiting dilution polymerase chain reaction were used to sensitively quantify myeloma cells in bone marrow and peripheral blood stem cell collections, taken at a similar time, from eight patients with multiple myeloma. Levels of residual disease in the peripheral blood stem cell harvests were variable and did not reflect the tumour burden in the marrow. Peripheral blood stem cells contained 1.7 to 23 700-fold fewer myeloma cells compared with the bone marrow and would have resulted in reinfusion of 0.08 to 59 480-fold fewer myeloma cells based on total reinfused CFU-GM and 0.24 to 24 700-fold fewer myeloma cells based on total reinfused nucleated cells. Assuming that the proportion of clonogenic myeloma cells is equivalent, peripheral blood stem cells may be better than bone marrow as a source of haemopoietic stem cells for transplantation in multiple myeloma. The clinical follow-up suggested that patients transplanted with peripheral blood stem cells containing a low number of myeloma cells had better disease control than those transplanted with peripheral blood stem cells containing a high number.     

Comparison of Pyrosequencing,Sanger Sequencing,and Melting Curve Analysis for Detection of Low-Frequency Macrolide-Resistant Mycoplasma pneumoniae Quasispecies in Respiratory Specimens

Macrolide-resistant Mycoplasma pneumoniae (MRMP) is emerging worldwide and has been associated with treatment failure. In this study, we used pyrosequencing to detect low-frequency MRMP quasispecies in respiratory specimens, and we compared the findings with those obtained by Sanger sequencing and SimpleProbe PCR coupled with a melting curve analysis (SimpleProbe PCR). Sanger sequencing, SimpleProbe PCR, and pyrosequencing were successfully performed for 96.7% (88/91), 96.7% (88/91), and 93.4% (85/91) of the M. pneumoniae-positive specimens, respectively. The A-to-G transition at position 2063 was the only mutation identified. Pyrosequencing identified A2063G MRMP quasispecies populations in 78.8% (67/88) of the specimens. Only 38.8% (26/67) of these specimens with the A2063G quasispecies detected by pyrosequencing were found to be A2063G quasispecies by Sanger sequencing or SimpleProbe PCR. The specimens that could be detected by SimpleProbe PCR and Sanger sequencing had higher frequencies of MRMP quasispecies (51% to 100%) than those that could not be detected by those two methods (1% to 44%). SimpleProbe PCR correctly categorized all specimens that were identified as wild type or mutant by Sanger sequencing. The clinical characteristics of the patients were not significantly different when they were grouped by the presence or absence of MRMP quasispecies, while patients with MRMP identified by Sanger sequencing more often required a switch from macrolides to an alternative M. pneumoniae-targeted therapy. The clinical significance of mutant quasispecies should be investigated further with larger patient populations and with specimens obtained before and after macrolide therapy.     

Inflammation and Hras signaling control epithelial–mesenchymal transition during skin tumor progression

Epithelial–mesenchymal transition (EMT) is thought to be an important, possibly essential, component of the process of tumor dissemination and metastasis. About 20%–30% of Hras mutant mouse skin carcinomas induced by chemical initiation/promotion protocols have undergone EMT. Reduced exposure to TPA-induced chronic inflammation causes a dramatic reduction in classical papillomas and squamous cell carcinomas (SCCs), but the mice still develop highly invasive carcinomas with EMT properties, reduced levels of Hras and Egfr signaling, and frequent Ink4/Arf deletions. Deletion of Hras from the mouse germline also leads to a strong reduction in squamous tumor development, but tumors now acquire activating Kras mutations and exhibit more aggressive metastatic properties. We propose that invasive carcinomas can arise by different genetic and biological routes dependent on exposure to chronic inflammation and possibly from different target cell populations within the skin. Our data have implications for the use of inhibitors of inflammation or of Ras/Egfr pathway signaling for prevention or treatment of invasive cancers.