Activation of human B cells mediated through two distinct cell surface differentiation antigens, Bp35 and Bp50.

Two human B-cell differentiation antigens, Bp35 and Bp50, apparently play distinct roles as signal receptors in B-cell activation. Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) to either Bp35 or Bp50 deliver positive signals to B cells that stimulate their transition through the cell cycle. mAb to Bp35, like anti-immunoglobulin antibodies, functions principally to activate resting B cells to become competent to enter the G1 phase of the cell cycle. In contrast, mAb to Bp50, a 50-kDa polypeptide expressed on all B cells, functions to stimulate activated B cells to traverse the cell cycle. mAb to Bp35, like anti-immunoglobulin antibodies, activates tonsillar B cells and induces low levels of B-cell proliferation. In contrast, anti-Bp50 mAb alone neither activates B cells nor induces B cells to proliferate but, together with anti-Bp35 or anti-immunoglobulin, augments B-cell proliferation. In this respect the action of anti-Bp50 antibody resembles the activity of B-cell growth factor(s) (BCGF). As little as 0.05 microgram of anti-Bp50 per ml is needed to augment proliferation and, like BCGF, anti-Bp50 is effective even when added 12-24 hr after B cells are activated with anti-immunoglobulin or anti-Bp35. Without additional exogenous signals, anti-Bp35 and anti-Bp50 together induce strong proliferation of purified resting B cells. These results suggest that the Bp35 and Bp50 surface molecules function in the regulatory control of B-cell activation and progression through the cell cycle.     

Dental caries prevalence in early Polynesians from the Hawaiian Islands

We examined the skeletal remains of 1338 early Hawaiians (preserved in the Bishop Museum, Honolulu) to determine total caries and root surface caries prevalence. Specimens from seven islands were represented in the collection. Estimation of age at death was made by a combination of dental developmental staging for younger individuals and occlusal attrition and/or alveolar bone loss in adults. Museum records were also consulted for age estimation of adults which was primarily based on osteological criteria. The material was divided into six age groups. Predentate infants and edentulous adults were not included. A total of 19,425 teeth was examined. Caries lesions were observed in 462 individuals (34.5%) and 1895 teeth (9.8%). Coronal caries lesions in children and adolescents tended to be small and not particularly destructive of tooth structure. Root surface lesions in young adults were also small but increased progressively in size in the older groups, resulting in pulp exposure and coronal amputation. Although coronal caries was apparently not a significant dental health problem in children and young adults (compared with contemporary Hawaiians), root surface caries was an increasingly important source of tooth morbidity and tooth mortality in the older population groups. This age-related caries pattern was similar for all of the islands.     

Nuclear magnetic resonance proton imaging of bone pathology

Thirty-two patients with diversified pathology were examined with a supraconductive NMR imager using spin echo with different TR and TE to obtain T1 and T2 weighted images. They included 20 tumors (12 primary, eight metastasis), six osteomyelitis, three fractures, two osteonecrosis, and one diffuse metabolic (Gaucher) disease. In all cases except for the stress fractures, the bone pathology was clearly visualized in spite of the normal lack of signal from the compact cortical bone. Nuclear magnetic resonance (NMR) imaging proved to be at least as sensitive as radionuclide scintigraphy but much more accurate than all other imaging procedures including computed tomography (CT) and angiography to assess the extension of the lesions, especially in tumors extended to soft tissue. This is due both to easy acquisition of sagittal and coronal sections and to different patterns of pathologic modifications of T1 and T2 which are beginning to be defined. It is hoped that more experience in clinical use of these patterns will help to discriminate between tumor extension and soft-tissue edema. We conclude that while radionuclide scintigraphy will probably remain the most sensitive and easy to perform screening test for bone pathology, NMR imaging, among noninvasive diagnostic procedures, appears to be at least as specific as CT. In addition, where the extension of the lesions is concerned, NMR imaging is much more informative than CT. In pathology of the spine, the easy visualization of the spinal cord should decrease the need for myelography.     

Topographic analysis of Horner's syndrome

Horner's syndrome or oculosympathetic paralysis is not an uncommon finding in patients with head and neck neoplasms. While in most cases the syndrome is easily established at the bedside, it can be confirmed and topographically defined as a central, preganglionic, or postganglionic lesion through sequential pharmacologic testing. The importance of such localization lies in differentiating neoplasia vs. a benign condition as the cause of the syndrome. Such variants as congenital Horner's, an alternating Horner's, and a pseudo-Horner's syndrome are discussed in regard to their differential features.     

Diaper area skin microflora of normal children and children with atopic dermatitis.

In vitro studies established that neither cloth nor disposable diapers demonstrably contributed to the growth of Escherichia coli, Proteus vulgaris, Staphylococcus aureus, or Candida albicans when urine was present as a growth medium. In a clinical study of 166 children, the microbial skin flora of children with atopic dermatitis was compared with the flora of children with normal skin to determine the influence of diaper type. No biologically significant differences were detected between groups wearing disposable or cloth diapers in terms of frequency of isolation or log mean recovery of selected skin flora. Repeated isolation of S. aureus correlated with atopic dermatitis. The log mean recovery of S. aureus was higher in the atopic groups. The effects of each diaper type on skin microflora were equivalent in the normal and atopic populations.     

Specific sensitization to common allergens and pulmonary function in the European Community Respiratory Health Survey

BACKGROUND: The role of atopy in the evolution to chronic obstructive disease remains controversial. AIM: We aimed to assess the association between individual sensitization to common allergens and lung function. METHOD: We analysed data from 12,687 subjects aged 20 to 44 years, from 34 centres in 15 countries participating in the European Community Respiratory Health Survey (ECRHS). Participants performed a blood test, lung function test, methacholine challenge, and answered an administered questionnaire. The relationships between specific IgE, FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio were assessed for each study centre stratified by sex, followed by random effects meta-analysis. RESULTS: Asthmatics sensitized to house dust mite had a lower FEV1 (-119 mL in women and -112 mL in men) and FEV1/FVC ratio (-1.95%, and -2.48%) than asthmatics without sensitization. Asthmatics sensitized to cat had a lower FEV1 (statistically significant for women only) and a lower FEV1/FVC ratio. Asthmatic women sensitized to grass had a lower FEV1 and a lower ratio, and those sensitized to Cladosporium had a lower FEV1. A weak association was found with sensitization to cat and to Cladosporium among non-asthmatic women, which disappeared after adjusting for BHR. CONCLUSION: We conclude that atopy was related to a lower lung function, which was only apparent among asthmatics. This relationship was explained by specific sensitization to cat and to house dust mite, the latter being homogeneous across areas.     

Donor interleukin-4 promoter gene polymorphism influences allograft rejection after heart transplantation.

BACKGROUND: The cytokine interleukin-4 (IL-4) is secreted mainly by activated T lymphocytes and characterizes the T-helper 2 (Th2) sub-type. In transplantation Th2 cells are believed to induce graft tolerance. Previous studies revealed that patients with a relatively high frequency of IL-4 producing helper T lymphocytes (HTL) before heart transplantation (HTX) had no or less rejection episodes compared with patients with a low frequency of IL-4 producing HTL. Three single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) have been identified in the promoter region of the IL-4 gene, which influence promoter strength. We investigated whether there was a correlation between SNP genotypes in the IL-4 promoter and heart failure, and rejection after HTX. METHODS: Seventy HTX patients, 61 donors, and 36 controls were genotyped for the 3 SNPs by sequencing. RESULTS: Of the SNPs at -285 and -81, only the C and A alleles, respectively, were found in this study. Both alleles were found for the -590 SNP. No relation between patient genotype of the SNP at -590 and heart failure and rejection was found. However, incidence of rejection was significantly lower in patients that received a donor heart with the T-positive genotype compared with patients that received a heart from a T-negative donor. Patients who had the T-negative genotype and received a heart from a T-positive donor, suffered significantly less from rejection than T-negative patients that received a T-negative donor heart. This was not significant in the T-positive patient group. CONCLUSIONS: This indicates that IL-4 production within the donor heart and by cells from the donor is important for reducing incidence of episodes of rejection.     

BookReviews

Annals of Vascular Surgery -     

Direct effect of acute metabolic and respiratory acidosis on parathyroid hormone secretion in the dog.

Because both metabolic (Met Acid) and respiratory acidosis (Resp Acid) have diverse effects on mineral metabolism, it has been difficult to establish whether acidosis directly affects parathyroid hormone (PTH) secretion. Our goal was to determine whether acute Met Acid and Resp Acid directly affected PTH secretion. Three groups of dogs were studied: control, acute Met Acid induced by HCl infusion, and acute Resp Acid induced by hypoventilation. EDTA was infused to prevent acidosis-induced increases in ionized calcium, but more EDTA was needed in Met Acid than in Resp Acid. The PTH response to EDTA-induced hypocalcemia was evaluated also. Magnesium needed to be infused in groups receiving EDTA to prevent hypomagnesemia. The half-life of intact PTH (iPTH) was determined during hypocalcemia when PTH was measured after parathyroidectomy. During normocalcemia, PTH values were greater (p < 0.05) in Met Acid (92 +/- 19 pg/ml) and Resp Acid (77 +/- 22 pg/ml) than in controls (27 +/- 5 pg/ml); the respective pH values were 7.23 +/- 0.01, 7.24 +/- 0.01, and 7.39 +/- 0.02. The maximal PTH response to hypocalcemia was greater (p < 0.05) in Met Acid (443 +/- 54 pg/ml) than in Resp Acid (267 +/- 37 pg/ml) and controls (262 +/- 48 pg/ml). The half-life of PTH was greater (p < 0.05) in Met Acid than in controls, but the PTH secretion rate also was greater (p < 0.05) in Met Acid than in the other two groups. In conclusion, (1) both acute Met Acid and Resp Acid increase PTH secretion when the ionized calcium concentration is normal; (2) acute Met Acid may increase the bone efflux of calcium more than Resp Acid; (3) acute Met Acid acts as a secretogogue for PTH secretion because it enhances the maximal PTH response to hypocalcemia.