Detection of Candida in concentrated oral rinse cultures by real-time PCR

The incidence of oral candidosis has increased in recent years, largely as a result of the emergence of human immunodeficiency virus infection and the more widespread use of immunosuppressive chemotherapy. This development has been associated with a need for more reliable methods for the detection of Candida. The present study assessed the performance of a real-time PCR and two block-based PCRs for the detection of Candida in 193 concentrated oral rinse culture (CRC) specimens. A total of 102 CRC specimens were positive by culture for Candida; and 96, 90, and 75 of these were also positive by real-time, N18-specific, and internal transcribed spacer (ITS)-specific PCRs, respectively. The five false-negative results by the real-time PCR were all non-Candida albicans positive by culture. Of the 91 culture-negative CRC specimens, 20, 41, and 44 were positive by the real-time PCR and the N18- and ITS-specific PCRs, respectively. All three PCRs detected fungal DNA in 8 culture-negative CRC specimens, with a further 30 being positive by two of the three PCRs. A total of 32 CRC specimens were Candida free by all methods. In summary, a real-time PCR that provides a sensitive, specific, and rapid alternative technique for detection of Candida in the mouth is described.     

A locus for spondylocarpotarsal synostosis syndrome at chromosome 3p14

Spondylocarpotarsal synostosis syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder characterised by vertebral fusions, frequently manifesting as an unsegmented vertebral bar, as well as fusions of the carpal and tarsal bones.

In a study of three consanguineous families and one non-consanguineous family, linkage analysis was used to establish the chromosomal location of the disease gene. Linkage analysis localised the disease gene to chromosome 3p14. A maximum lod score of 6.49 (q = 0) was obtained for the marker at locus D3S3532 on chromosome 3p. Recombination mapping narrowed the linked region to the 5.7 cM genetic interval between the markers at loci D3S3724 and D3S1300. A common region of homozygosity was found between the markers at loci D3S3724 and D3S1300, defining a physical interval of approximately 4 million base pairs likely to contain the disease gene.

Identification of the gene responsible for this disorder will provide insight into the genes that play a role in the formation of the vertebral column and joints.

     

A review of the phenotypic variation due to the Denys-Drash syndrome-associated germline WT1 mutation R362X

The gene WT1 is required for the normal development and function of the urogenital tract. Constitutional mutations are associated with familial Wilms tumor and syndromes such as Denys-Drash syndrome (DDS) characterized by nephropathy, genital anomalies and often a predisposition to Wilms tumor. We report a case of constitutional WT1 mutation in an XX female with multifocal Wilms tumor but no genital anomalies or renal dysfunction and, for the first time, review patients previously reported with this germline mutation. The mutation (1084C>T) changes the amino acid arginine at position 362 to the translation stop codon TGA (R362X) resulting in a predicted truncated protein lacking three of the four zinc finger domains necessary for correct functioning of the gene. This constitutional mutation has been reported to cause a variety of phenotypes in eleven different patients, including the classical Denys-Drash phenotype of diffuse mesangial sclerosis which leads to early renal failure, genital anomalies in XY individuals and Wilms tumors. The absence of mesangial sclerosis and renal failure in our patient excludes DDS. Our case differs from those previously described as the normal kidney tissue shows some small subcapsular glomeruli indicating that the WT1 mutation has impaired nephron development. This patient extends the range and variation of phenotypes that may arise from a specific germline mutation in WT1.     

Epithelioid variant of gastrointestinal stromal tumor: Diagnosis by fine-needle aspiration

Epithelioid gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GISTs) may cause significant diagnostic confusion on fine-needle aspiration (FNA) with carcinomas, neuroendocrine tumors, and melanoma, particularly when metastatic. This study characterizes the cytologic features of nine cases of epithelioid GISTs that were obtained by computerized tomographic guidance in five, by endoscopic ultrasound in three, and from an excised liver tumor in one. Six cases presented as liver masses, one as a perisplenic mass, one as an abdominal mass, and one as a gastric mass. The aspirates revealed mainly single or small clusters of epithelioid cells with a moderate amount of granular to clear cytoplasm, small uniform nuclei with mild to marked nuclear envelope irregularities. Binucleation and intranuclear inclusions were frequent findings. Collagenous stroma was seen in most cases. In three cases, a neuroendocrine tumor was the initial diagnosis. Immunocytochemical staining for c-kit (CD117) was performed on cellblocks in six cases and was positive in five cases. On the subsequent surgical specimen, CD117 was positive in the c-kit-negative cytology case. The diagnosis of GIST should be considered in aspirates of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, mesentery, or abdominal wall mass lesions when epithelioid cells are the predominant cell type. Ancillary studies such as immunohistochemical stains are usually helpful in making a definitive diagnosis.     

Carcinosarcoma of the liver: a case report and review of the literature

No more than 11 cases of carcinosarcoma of the liver have been reported in the past 40 years that fulfill the definition of hepatocellular carcinoma combined with differentiated sarcomatous elements. Most cases consist of hepatocellular carcinoma with 1 to 2 heterologous elements. We report a case of a 51-year-old woman with liver carcinosarcoma consisting of 3 carcinomatous components and 4 sarcomatous components. Hepatocellular carcinoma, fibrolamellar type, was accompanied by neuroendocrine carcinoma (neuron-specific enolase and synaptophysin positive) and adenocarcinoma (cytokeratin 7 and 20 positive). The sarcomatous elements consisted of poorly differentiated spindle cell neoplasm (vimentin positive), leiomyosarcoma (smooth muscle actin positive), rhabdomyosarcoma (desmin positive), and osteosarcoma. To our knowledge, this is the first case of liver carcinosarcoma with this many differentiated heterologous features. There are differing views on the pathogenesis of this tumor. Findings in this case support the view that metaplasia of carcinomatous cells gives rise to the sarcomatous elements.     

Linkage analysis of five pedigrees affected with typical autosomal dominant retinitis pigmentosa.

Five pedigrees (including an expanded version of a previously reported pedigree) exhibited typical autosomal dominant retinitis pigmentosa were analysed for linkage of RP to 29 genetic markers. No significant lod scores resulted. The largest lod score is +1.51 and suggests linkage between RP and Rh blood group at an estimated recombination fraction of 20% in males and 40% in females. Further studies are needed to confirm or refute this suggested linkage.     

Indirect ELISA for the detection of HSV-2 specific IgG and IgM antibodies with glycoprotein G (gG-2).

The glycoprotein G (gG-2) purified from HSV-2 infected cells has been reported to be useful for determination of HSV-2 type-specific antibodies using conventional ELISA formats. This study further confirmed the specificity of gG-2 and demonstrated the feasibility of a specific IgM assay. The gG-2 ELISA was developed to detect HSV-2 specific IgG and IgM antibodies in human sera with high levels of sensitivity and specificity. Of 45 patients with culture-proven recurrent HSV-2 genital infection 44 were reactive for gG-2 IgG. Of 30 sera from patients with culture-proven recent initial HSV-2 genital infection 29 were positive for gG-2 IgM. Three patients with primary HSV-2 genital infection showed gG-2 IgM in the convalescent but not in the acute sera. The IgG- and IgM-gG-2 ELISA showed high specificity. None of 40 sera from children were reactive by either assay. Only one of 94 sera from patients with antibody to herpesviruses other than HSV reacted in the IgG assay but none reacted in the IgM assay. There was no cross-reaction with sera from patients with proven HSV-1 infection with the gG-2 antigen. The results suggest that the IgG assay can be used for demonstration of past HSV-2 infection and the IgM assay for the diagnosis of HSV-2 in neonatal herpes and primary genital herpes, when cultures or rapid diagnostic techniques are unavailable.     

Worldwide genomic diversity of the human papillomaviruses-53, 56, and 66, a group of high-risk HPVs unrelated to HPV-16 and HPV-18

Among more than 200 human papillomavirus (HPV) types presumed to exist, 18 "high-risk" HPV types are frequently found in anogenital cancer. The best studied types are HPV-16 and 18, which are only distantly related to one another and form two separate phylogenetic branches, each including six closely related types. HPV-30, 53, 56, and 66 form a third phylogenetic branch unrelated to HPV-16 and 18. Worldwide comparison of HPV-16 and 18 isolates revealed a distribution of variant genomes that correlated with the geographic origin and the ethnicity of the infected cohort and led to the concept of unique African, European, Asian, and Native American HPV-16 and 18 variants. Here, we address the question whether similar phylogenies are found for HPV-53, 56, and 66 by determining the sequence of the long control regions (LCR) of these HPVs in samples from Europe, Asia, and Africa, and from immigrant societies in North and South America. Phylogenetic trees calculated from point mutations and a few insertions/deletions affecting 2-4.2% of the nucleotide sequences were distinct for each of the three HPVs and divergent from HPV-16 and 18. In contrast to the "star-phylogenies" formed by HPV-16 and 18 variants, 44 HPV-53 isolates represented nine variants, which formed two deep dichotomic branches reminiscent of the beginning split into two new taxa, as recently observed for subtypes of HPV-44 and 68. A total of 66 HPV-56 isolates represented 17 variants, which formed three branches preferentially containing European, Asian, and African variants. Variants of a fourth branch, deeply separated from the other three, were characterized by a 25 bp insertion and created a dichotomy rather than star-like phylogeny. As it contained isolates from cohorts in all continents, it may have evolved before the spread of humans into all continents. 18 of 31 HPV-66 isolates represented the prototype clone, which was found in all parts of the world, while the remaining 13 clones formed 11 branches without any geographic association. Our findings confirm the notion of a quantitatively limited genomic diversity of each HPV type with some correlation to the geographic origin of the sample. In addition, we observed in some variants of these three HPV types mutations that affect the amino acid sequence of the E6 oncoproteins and the L1 capsid protein, supporting the possibility of immunogenic and oncogenic diversity between variants of any HPV type.     

Gamma interferon responses induced by a panel of recombinant and purified mycobacterial antigens in healthy,non-mycobacterium bovis BCG-vaccinated Malawian young adults

We have previously shown that young adults living in a rural area of northern Malawi showed greater gamma interferon (IFN-gamma) responses to purified protein derivatives (PPD) prepared from environmental mycobacteria than to PPD from Mycobacterium tuberculosis. In order to define the mycobacterial species to which individuals living in a rural African population have been exposed and sensitized, we tested T-cell recognition of recombinant and purified antigens from M. tuberculosis (38 kDa, MPT64, and ESAT-6), M. bovis (MPB70), M. bovis BCG (Ag85), and M. leprae (65 kDa, 35 kDa, and 18 kDa) in >600 non-M. bovis BCG-vaccinated young adults in the Karonga District of northern Malawi. IFN-gamma was measured by enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) in day 6 supernatants of diluted whole-blood cultures. The recombinant M. leprae 35-kDa and 18-kDa and purified native M. bovis BCG Ag85 antigens induced the highest percentages of responders, though both leprosy and bovine tuberculosis are now rare in this population. The M. tuberculosis antigens ESAT-6 and MPT64 and the M. bovis antigen MPB70 induced the lowest percentages of responders. One of the subjects subsequently developed extrapulmonary tuberculosis; this individual had a 15-mm-diameter reaction to the Mantoux test and responded to M. tuberculosis PPD, Ag85, MPT64, and ESAT-6 but not to any of the leprosy antigens. We conclude that in this rural African population, exposure to M. tuberculosis or M. bovis is much less frequent than exposure to environmental mycobacteria such as M. avium, which have antigens homologous to the M. leprae 35-kDa and 18-kDa antigens. M. tuberculosis ESAT-6 showed the strongest association with the size of the Mantoux skin test induration, suggesting that among the three M. tuberculosis antigens tested it provided the best indication of exposure to, or infection with, M. tuberculosis.     

Rapid slide coagglutination test for identifying and typing group B streptococci.

A Cowan I strain of Staphylococcus aureus was labeled with either group B streptococcal grouping or typing antiserum. These antibody-labeled reagent cells (ARC) were used in a slide coagglutination test to identify and type group B streptococci from blood agar plates. All streptococci were also identified by the standard Lancefield capillary precipitin test. In a blind study, all 141 group B streptococci were correctly identified by the coagglutination grouping test. None of the 148 non-group B streptococci caused agglutination of ARC. The coagglutination grouping test required an acid extract prepared from only four colonies and could be completed less than 30 min after colonies were removed from plates. The coagglutination typing test correctly identified 98.6% of the types of the 141 group B streptococcal strains tested. At least 88.6% of these streptococci could be typed directly from blood agar plates within 5 min by the coagglutination typing test. The remaining 11.4% of the group B streptococci were acid extracted (less than a 30-min procedure), and the extract was used for coagglutination typing. Coagglutination typing can be performed with only four colonies. The coagglutination grouping and typing tests are inexpensive, rapid, reliable, and easy to perform.