Rapidly growing breast cancer: results of a retrospective analysis with a study of prognostic factors

Between January 1977 and December 1982, 66 consecutive patients have been treated for unilateral, rapidly progressing, non metastatic breast cancer. They were divided into three groups: Group A (n = 10): tumor whom volume had increased during the 2 months before diagnosis; Group B (n = 30): inflammatory signs (erythema, skin oedema, elevated local temperature) involving less than one half of the breast; Group C (n = 26): inflammatory signs involving more than one half of the breast. All patients where managed similarly: 3 to 4 courses of chemotherapy (CMF: n = 24; AVCF: n = 42), then loco regional irradiation therapy with cobalt 60, followed by maintenance chemotherapy, only if the first chemotherapy had proved effective (CMF: n = 13; AVCF: n = 27). Nine patients with residual tumor after radiotherapy underwent mastectomy with axillary dissection. The actuarial 5 years survival for the whole group is 29%, and respectively 49%, 38% and 9% for the groups A, B and C. The median disease free intervals are 43, 29 and 12 months respectively. Fifteen prognostic factors likely to influence overall survival or disease free survival were evaluated. With univariate analysis, 8 factors were found to be of individual prognostic value: extent of initial erythema, erythema present after initial chemotherapy, erythema present after radiotherapy, non menopaused status, tumor diameter greater than 10 cms, residual breast tumor (clinical or radiographic) after maintenance chemotherapy, supra clavicular adenopathy (N3). Age at the diagnosis, type of chemotherapy, or performance of a radical mastectomy did not influence the prognosis. Multivariate analysis using the Cox-model isolated 3 factors of bad prognosis: erythema involving the whole breast at initial diagnosis, erythema present at the end of initial chemotherapy, N3.     

Cancer et environnement: le cas de l’amiante

Asbestos has been used extensively in industrialised countries for more than a century, causing ongoing increases in mortality from mesothelioma. Despite its regulation and ban in France in 1997, and because of the 30-year cancer latency period after exposure to it, mortality from mesothelioma will continue to increase in the country for several decades, peaking between 2020 and 2030. The risk of mesothelioma from asbestos exposure is dose dependent and higher for amphiboles. For lung cancer, the risk increases linearly with cumulative exposure, regardless of the type of asbestos; this risk is similar in the presence or absence of pleural plaques. Smoking acts with asbestos to greatly increase the risk of lung cancer, but the effects of asbestos and smoking are independent. Regarding low-level exposure, an excess of mesothelioma and lung cancer has been observed in the vicinity of mines, asbestos manufacturers and natural geologic sites (para-occupational, domestic and environmental exposure); we have been unable to demonstrate safe levels of asbestos exposure.     

18F-FDG PET/CT for detecting nodal metastases in patients with oral cancer staged N0 by clinical examination and CT/MRI.

(18)F-FDG PET has a high accuracy in staging head and neck cancer, but its role in patients with clinically and radiographically negative necks (N0) is less clear. In particular, the value of combined PET/CT has not been determined in this group of patients. METHODS: In a prospective study, 31 patients with oral cancer and no evidence of lymph node metastases by clinical examination or CT/MRI underwent (18)F-FDG PET/CT before elective neck dissection. PET/CT findings were recorded by neck side (left or right) and lymph node level. PET/CT findings were compared with histopathology of dissected nodes, which was the standard of reference. RESULTS: Elective neck dissections (26 unilateral, 5 bilateral; a total of 36 neck sides), involving 142 nodal levels, were performed. Only 13 of 765 dissected lymph nodes harbored metastases. Histopathology revealed nodal metastases in 9 of 36 neck sides and 9 of 142 nodal levels. PET was TP in 6 nodal levels (6 neck sides), false-negative in 3 levels (3 neck sides), true-negative in 127 levels (23 neck sides), and false-positive in 6 levels (4 neck sides). The 3 false-negative findings occurred in metastases smaller than 3 mm or because of inability to distinguish between primary tumor and adjacent metastasis. TP and false-positive nodes exhibited similar standardized uptakes (4.8 +/- 1.1 vs. 4.2 +/- 1.0; P = not significant). Sensitivity and specificity were 67% and 85% on the basis of neck sides and 67% and 95% on the basis of number of nodal levels, respectively. If a decision regarding the need for neck dissection had been based solely on PET/CT, 3 false-negative necks would have been undertreated, and 4 false-positive necks would have been overtreated. CONCLUSION: (18)F-FDG PET/CT can identify lymph node metastases in a segment of patients with oral cancer and N0 neck. A negative test can exclude metastatic deposits with high specificity. Despite reasonably high overall accuracy, however, the clinical application of PET/CT in the N0 neck may be limited by the combination of limited sensitivity for small metastatic deposits and a relatively high number of false-positive findings. The surgical management of the N0 neck should therefore not be based on PET/CT findings alone.     

Alternaria alternata NADP-dependent mannitol dehydrogenase is an important fungal allergen.

BACKGROUND: Alternaria alternata is one of the most important allergenic fungi worldwide. Mannitol dehydrogenase (MtDH) has previously been shown to be a major allergen of Cladosporium herbarum and cross-reactivity has been demonstrated for several fungal allergens. OBJECTIVE: The present study's objective was to clone the MtDH from an A. alternata cDNA library, express and purify the recombinant non-fusion protein and test its IgE-binding properties. Methods A cDNA library prepared from A. alternata hyphae and spores was screened for mannitol dehydrogenase by DNA hybridization with the radioactively labelled C. herbarum homologue as a probe. The resulting clone was sequenced and heterologously expressed in Escherichia coli as a recombinant non-fusion protein, which was purified to homogeneity and analysed for its IgE-binding capacity. RESULTS: The coding sequence of the full-length cDNA clone comprises 798 bp encoding a protein with a molecular mass of 28.6 kDa and a predicted pI of 5.88. Protein sequence analysis revealed an identity of 75% and a homology of 86% between the MtDHs of A. alternata and C. herbarum. The functional mannitol dehydrogenase was expressed in the E. coli strain BL21(DE3) transformed with the vector pMW172 and purified to homogeneity. The enzyme catalyses the NADPH-dependent conversion of d-fructose to d-mannitol. In IgE-ELISA and immunoblots, MtDH is recognized by 41% of A. alternata-allergic patients. In vivo immunoreactivity of the recombinant MtDH was verified by skin prick testing. Finally, inhibition-ELISA experiments confirmed cross-reactivity between the MtDHs of A. alternata and C. herbarum. CONCLUSION: Mannitol dehydrogenase (Alt a 8) represents an important new allergen of the ascomycete A. alternata that might be suitable for improving diagnostic and therapeutic procedures.     

Endobronchial ultrasound: new insight for the diagnosis of sarcoidosis.

A diagnosis of sarcoidosis should be substantiated by pathological means in order to thoroughly exclude other diseases. The role of real-time endobronchial ultrasound-guided transbronchial needle aspiration (EBUS-TBNA) in the diagnosis of sarcoidosis has not been reported. The purpose of the present study is to evaluate the diagnostic yield of EBUS-TBNA in demonstrating the pathological features of sarcoidosis. In total, 65 patients with suspected sarcoidosis, with enlarged hilar or mediastinal lymph nodes on computed tomography, were included in the study. Patients with a suspected or known malignancy or previously established diagnosis of sarcoidosis were excluded. Convex probe endobronchial ultrasonography integrated with a separate working channel was used for EBUS-TBNA. Surgical methods were performed in those in whom no granulomas were detected by EBUS-TBNA. Patients were followed up clinically. EBUS-TBNA was performed on a total of 77 lymph node stations in 65 patients. A final diagnosis of sarcoidosis was made for 61 (93.8%) of the patients. The remaining four patients were diagnosed as having Wegener's granulomatosis (n=1) or indefinite (n=3). In patients with a final diagnosis of sarcoidosis, EBUS-TBNA demonstrated noncaseating epithelioid cell granulomas in 56 (91.8%) of the patients. No complications were reported. Endobronchial ultrasound-guided transbronchial needle aspiration proved to be a safe procedure with a high yield for the diagnoses of sarcoidosis.     

Role of IS6110 uniplex PCR in the diagnosis of tuberculous meningitis: experience at a tertiary neurocentre.

SETTING: Tuberculous meningitis (TBM) is the commonest form of neurotuberculosis in the Indian subcontinent. Rapid laboratory confirmation of TBM is important for the institution of early treatment and to avoid associated morbidity and mortality. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is the most widely applied alternative rapid diagnostic technique for TBM. OBJECTIVE: To evaluate the efficacy of an in-house developed IS6110 uniplex PCR (uPCR) in the diagnosis of TBM. DESIGN: A prospective, blinded study was conducted in a large sample base of 677 cerebrospinal fluid samples from 677 patients with clinically suspected TBM. RESULTS: All culture-positive samples (n = 136) were positive (100%) by the PCR assay. The assay was found to be positive in 70% (n = 541) of the samples with a clinical diagnosis of TBM. The assay had an observed sensitivity of 76.37% (negative predictive value 59.90%) and a specificity of 89.18% (positive predictive value 94.69%). A diagnostic accuracy of 80% (kappa 0.57) was seen in patients with a clinical diagnosis of TBM. Statistical significance was observed, as patients with a clinical diagnosis of TBM were found to be 9.38 times more likely to be PCR-positive (OR 9.38, chi2 = 149.94, P < 0.001). CONCLUSION: The performance of the in-house IS6110 uPCR assay merits its use as a sensitive and specific tool for the rapid diagnosis of TBM.     

Modification to improve efficiency of sampling schedules for BA/BE testing of FDC anti-tuberculosis drugs.

SETTING: The assessment of rifampicin (RMP) containing fixed-dose combination (FDC) formulations using in vivo bioequivalence testing is widely accepted. It would be advantageous for both the drug regulatory authorities and drug manufacturers, for optimum minimum blood testing time intervals that encompass all anti-tuberculosis active constituents in the FDC to be established. OBJECTIVE: To determine the optimum blood sampling schedule for testing novel FDC anti-tuberculosis drugs, isoniazid, RMP, pyrazinamide and ethambutol DESIGN: The results of 12 different single-dose, two-way cross-over designs are presented. The studies determined the bioavailability and bioequivalence of RMP-containing FDCs, and conformed with the requirements of the South African national drug regulatory authority for each of the active constituents. RESULTS: The pharmacokinetic parameters to determine bioavailability and the Hauschke method to determine bioequivalence revealed that a six-point time protocol, namely 0, 1, 2, 4, 6 and 8 h, provides a good approximation of the area under the curve, and that an 11-point time protocol of 0, 0.25, 0.5, 1, 1.5, 2, 2.5, 3, 4, 6 and 8 h provided information comparable to the conventional 15 time-points for FDCs containing up to four drugs. CONCLUSION: The findings provide concrete economic benefit and convenience for quality assurance testing of existing and novel FDCs.