Use of risk stratification to target therapies in patients with recent onset arthritis; design of a prospective randomized multicenter controlled trial

Background  

Early and intensive treatment is important to inducing remission and preventing joint damage in patients with rheumatoid arthritis. While intensive combination therapy (Disease Modifying Anti-rheumatic Drugs and/or biologicals) is the most effective, rheumatologists in daily clinical practice prefer to start with monotherapy methotrexate and bridging corticosteroids. Intensive treatment should be started as soon as the first symptoms manifest, but at this early stage, ACR criteria may not be fulfilled, and there is a danger of over-treatment. We will therefore determine which induction therapy is most effective in the very early stage of persistent arthritis. To overcome over-treatment and under-treatment, the intensity of induction therapy will be based on a prediction model that predicts patients' propensity for persistent arthritis.     

CVA3 Adherence to Hypertension Therapy: The Effect of Initial Drug Choice

Health-care case management places pressure on decision makers to adopt treatment strategies that promote economic efficiency and hence profitability. Traditional costeffectiveness analysis (CEA), where the objective is to calculate cost-effectiveness ratios, can better inform decision making in markets where prices and efficacy vary widely. However, the threshold at which a given therapy becomes economically efficient relative to competing therapies is not evident from cost-effictiveness ratios alone.
OBJECTIVE: To illustrate the use of spatial techniques for identifying efficient treatment options, using statin therapy in secondary prevention of coronary heart disease (CHD) as a case study.
METHODS: We used a Markov model of CHD epidemiology and treatment to estimate cost-effectivness of 13 statin regimens versus no therapy in secondary prevention of CHD. Comparative efficacy was assessed using data from a recent trial (CURVES) that included these regimens. Patients were assumed to have a history of CHD with risk factors similar to those observed in the trial. CHD event risk was estimated using new subsequent-event risk equations from the Framingham Heart Study. Effectiveness was measured alternatively as gain in life expectancy and CHD events averted.
RESULTS: At usual starting doses, atorvastatin therapy provided the largest life expectancy gain and CHD event avoidance at the lowest cost per life-year gained ($12,900 and $23,400 for men and women, respectively), followed by simvastatin ($17,700 and $31,700), lovastatin ($18,800 and $33,700), pravastatin ($22,600 and $40,200), and fluvastatin ($23,800 and $42,000). Any desired level of effectiveness can be obtained at lowest cost with atorvastatin.
CONCLUSION: Economic efficiency is enhanced when atorvastatin is used to treat some or all patients requiring statin therapy in secondary prevention of CHD.     

Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring

Ambulatory blood pressure monitoring (ABPM) in adults is proving to be useful. The aim of this study was to determine if ABPM is accurate in the lower blood pressure range encountered in children and, equally important, whether it is acceptable to children. Thirty one children, between the ages of 6 and 18 years, were assessed using an ambulatory blood pressure monitor that uses an auscultatory method. Blood pressure was measured in the contralateral arm with a mercury sphygmomanometer and an oscillometric device at the beginning and end of the study for comparison. Over a blood pressure range of 90-130 mm Hg systolic and 40-80 mm Hg diastolic, a close agreement was found with the sphygmomanometer; the limits of agreement (+/- 2 SD) were 11.6 mm Hg for systolic blood pressure and 13.6 mm Hg for diastolic blood pressure. The bias was less than 1.0 mm Hg. The ambulatory device was worn by all patients for at least 16 hours with an average of 52 recordings per patient. The majority found the device comfortable to wear and were not woken from sleep.     

TEL gene is involved in myelodysplastic syndromes with either the typical t(5;12)(q33;p13) translocation or its variant t(10;12)(q24;p13)

A t(5;12)(q33;p13) translocation is a recurrent chromosome abnormality in a subgroup of myeloid malignancies with features of both myeloproliferative disorders and myelodysplastic syndromes (MDSs). The molecular consequence of a t(5;12) is a fusion between the platelet- derived growth factor receptor-B gene on chromosome 5 and a novel ETS- like gene, TEL, on chromosome 12. We report on three patients with a t(5;12)(q33;p13) diagnosed as chronic myelomonocytic leukemia, and one case of a t(10;12)(q24;p13) in a progressive MDS, with eosinophilia and monocytosis. Involvement of the TEL gene in these chromosome translocations was investigated by fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH) with cosmid probes containing selectively the 5' end or 3' end of TEL. Hybridization of these cosmids to the der(5)/der(10) or a der(12), respectively, demonstrated a rearrangement of TEL in both translocations, showing that the t(10;12) is a variant translocation of the t(5;12). Cloning of the fusion cDNA of one case of t(5;12) showed that the breakpoint occurred at the RNA level at exactly the same position as reported by Golub et al (Cell 77:307, 1994). In addition, the TEL gene on chromosome 12 could be localized between two probes previously mapped to 12p13, namely PRB1 and D12S178, leading to a better definition of the position of TEL in this chromosome region. Moreover, in the case involving chromosome 10, the breakpoint occurred between cKTN206 and cKTN312/LYT-10 at 10q24. Clinicohematological data in these studies as well as the restriction mapping of chromosomal breakpoints strongly suggest that (1) common features in MDSs involving the TEL gene are monocytosis and eosinophilia, (2) chromosomes other than no. 5 may be involved and at least a t(10;12)(q24;p13) variant chromosome translocation does exist in these MDSs, and (3) both standard and variant 12p/TEL translocations may be identified by FISH with appropriate probes.     

The molecular basis of renal amyloidosis in Irish-American and Polish- Canadian kindreds

Hereditary amyloidosis of an unusual form has been reported in two separate kindreds; one was Polish-Canadian and the other was Irish- American (Am J Med 1975; 59:121 and Trans Assoc Am Physicians 1981; 94:211). In both kindreds, affected members developed hypertension and nephrotic syndrome due to amyloidosis in their forties or fifties, but the genetic background responsible for the condition has been left undetermined. To identify the genetic defect in these kindreds, a portion of exon 5 of the fibrinogen alpha-chain gene in members of these kindreds was examined for a mutation by single-strand conformation polymorphism analysis and direct DNA sequencing. DNA analyses revealed an A-->T transversion at the second base of codon 526 of the fibrinogen alpha-chain gene in both of these kindreds. Analysis of DNA polymorphisms in the fibrinogen alpha-chain gene locus (TCTT repeat in intron 3, Rsal site in exon 5, and Taql site in the 3' flanking region of the gene) showed the haplotype B5-Rsal(+)-Taql(-) for the Val 526 mutant gene in both kindreds studied here, as well as in two kindreds previously described (J Clin Invest 1994; 93:731). The fibrinogen alpha-chain gene mutation (Val 526) is the genetic defect responsible for hereditary renal amyloidosis in these two kindreds, and the mutant genes in the Val 526 kindreds may have been derived from a single founder.      

SELECTIVE IgA DEFICIENCY PRESENTING WITH HYPERSPLENISM

SUMMARY A young patient presenting with splenomegaly and hypersplenism was inadvertently found to have selective IgA deficiency. There were no symptoms of immunodeficiency and the patient responded well to splenectomy, with return of blood counts to normal without adverse effects. No other cause for the hypersplenism was found. We postulate selective IgA deficiency as a cause of splenomegaly and hypersplenism.     

Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT)-positive cells in cerebrospinal fluid and development of overt CNS leukemia: a 5-year follow-up study in 113 children with a TdT-positive leukemia or non- Hodgkin's lymphoma

We investigated whether an indirect nuclear terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase (TdT) immunofluorescence (IF) assay on single cells present in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is more effective than conventional cytomorphology for early detection or exclusion of (minimal) meningeal leukemic infiltration in patients with a TdT+ malignancy. During a 5- year follow-up study, 1,661 consecutive CSF samples from 113 children with a TdT+ acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) (n = 100), a TdT+ acute nonlymphoblastic leukemia (ANLL) (n = 8), or a TdT+ non-Hodgkin's lymphoma (NHL) (n = 5) were analyzed. In 1,511 (91.9%) of 1,643 evaluable CSF samples, the positive and negative findings of both cytomorphology and the TdT-IF assay were concordant. In 47 (2.9%) samples from 28 patients, the cytomorphology was suspect while the TdT- IF assay was negative; follow-up as long as 58 months revealed no CNS leukemia in any patient. In 85 (5.2%) samples, cytomorphology was negative (n = 70) or suspect (n = 15) but TdT+ cells were detected. RBC contamination seriously hampered evaluation in 31 of these 85 samples. From the remaining 54 TdT+ samples from 29 patients, 40 samples preceded overt CNS leukemia in 20 patients. Two consecutive findings of TdT+ cells in the CSF were always followed by overt CNS leukemia. At initial diagnosis, 11 children had TdT+ cells in their RBC-free CSF. In one of these children, morphology was suspect; a repeated lumbar puncture was positive on both assays. Thus, initial CNS leukemia was diagnosed. In the other ten children, morphology was negative. In six of them, CNS leukemia was diagnosed 2 to 20 months later. In 32 other children examined at initial diagnosis, neither TdT+ cells nor blasts were observed in the CSF. In none of these patients was a CNS leukemia diagnosed after a follow-up of 2.5 to 57 months (median 24 months). In 207 control CSF samples from 58 children with TdT- oncologic, hematologic, or infectious diseases, no TdT+ cells could be detected. The TdT-IF assay is easy to perform and is a more reliable diagnostic tool for detection of CNS leukemia at an early stage than is cytomorphology. At initial diagnosis, the finding of Tdt+ cells in a RBC-free CSF sample with a negative cytomorphology is highly predictive for development of overt CNS leukemia.     

Colonoscopic yield of colorectal neoplasia in daily clinical practice

AIM： To assess the prevalence and location of advanced neoplasia in patients undergoing colonoscopy, and to compare the yield per indication. METHODS： In a multicenter colonoscopy survey （n = 18 hospitals） in the Amsterdam area （Northern Holland）, data of all colonoscopies performed during a three month period in 2005 were analyzed. The location and the histological features of all colonic neoplasia were recorded. The prevalence and the distribution of advanced colorectal neoplasia and differences in yield between indication clusters were evaluated. Advanced neoplasm was defined as adenoma 〉 10 mm in size, with 〉 25% villous features or with high-grade dysplasia or cancer. RESULTS： A total of 4623 eligible patients underwent a total colonoscopy. The prevalence of advanced neoplasia was 13%, with 281 （6%） adenocarcinomas and 342 （7%） advanced adenomas. Sixty-seven percent and 33% of advanced neoplasia were located in the distal and proximal colon, respectively. Of all patients with right-sided advanced neoplasia （n = 228）, 51% had a normal distal colon, whereas 27% had a synchronous distal adenoma. Ten percent of all colonoscopies were performed in asymptomatic patients, 7% of whom had advanced neoplasia. In the respective procedure indication clusters, the prevalence of rightsided advanced neoplasia ranged from 11%-57%. CONCLUSION： One out of every 7-8 colonoscopies yielded an advanced colorectal neoplasm. Colonoscopy is warranted for the evaluation of both symptomatic and asymptomatic patients.     

The major histocompatibility complex region marked by HSP70-1 and HSP70- 2 variants is associated with clozapine-induced agranulocytosis in two different ethnic groups

Genes of the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) have been associated with susceptibility to drug-induced adverse reactions. We previously found that clozapine-induced agranulocytosis (CA) is associated with the HLA-DRB1*0402, DRB4*0101, DQB1*0302, DQA1*0301 haplotype in Ashkenazi Jewish patients and with the HLA-DRB1*1601, DRB5*02, DQB1*0502, DQA1*0102 haplotype in non-Jewish patients. In the present study, we tested the hypothesis that the variants of the heat- shock protein 70 (HSP-70) encoded by the HSP-70 loci located within the MHC region and known to be involved in apoptosis and regulation of cell proliferation could play an important role in molecular mechanisms of CA. First, we analyzed HSP70-2 polymorphism in risk-associated haplotypes from HLA homozygous cells and normal individuals and confirmed that the HSP70-2 9-kb variant was associated invariably with DR4 (HLA-DRB1*0402, DQB1*0302) and DR2 (HLA-DRB1*01601, DQB1*0502, DQA1*0102 and HLA-DRB1*1501, DQB1*0602) haplotypes, which were the haplotypes found increased in Jewish and non-Jewish patients with CA, respectively. The 9.0-kb variant was also found to be associated with HLA-B44, DRB1*0401 and HLA-B44, DRB1*07 haplotypes. Second, in patients with CA (12 Ashkenazi Jewish and 20 non-Jewish patients), HSP70-1 A and HSP70-2 9.0-kb variants were associated with the MHC haplotypes found by us to be markers of susceptibility to CA. The clozapine-treated control group had an excess number of HSP70-1 C and HSP70-2 8.5-kb variants, consistent with genetic resistance to CA associated with those variants. This finding supports our hypothesis that a dominant gene within the MHC region (marked by HSP70-1 and HSP70-2), but not necessarily HLA, is associated with CA in two different ethnic groups.