Should diagnostic testicular sperm retrieval followed by cryopreservation for later ICSI be the procedure of choice for all patients with non-obstructive azoospermia?

BACKGROUND: This was a retrospective study to determine if diagnostic testicular biopsy followed by cryopreservation should be the procedure of choice for all patients with testicular failure. METHODS: The first part of the study analysed 97 ICSI cycles scheduled with frozen-thawed testicular sperm for 69 non-obstructive azoospermia (NOA) patients. The second part focused on a subgroup of 32 patients who underwent 42 ICSI cycles with frozen and 44 cycles with fresh testicular sperm. Sperm characteristics, fertilization, embryo quality, pregnancy and implantation rates were evaluated. RESULTS: Part I: The average time needed to find sperm was 113 min per cycle and 17 min per individual sperm. Fertilization rate, embryo transfer rate, ongoing pregnancy and implantation rates were 58.4%, 83%, 20.8% and 11.3%, respectively. Part II: The search time per sperm was higher (P=0.016) in frozen (18 min) than in fresh suspensions (13 min). A higher embryo transfer rate was observed in fresh cycles than in frozen cycles (93.2% vs 76.2%, P=0.028). Fertilization, ongoing pregnancy and implantation rates were comparable for the two groups. CONCLUSIONS: Even in a programme with low-restrictive criteria for patient allocation and for sperm cryopreservation, diagnostic testicular biopsy followed by cryopreservation can be the procedure of choice for patients with testicular failure.     

Can biological or clinical parameters predict testicular sperm recovery in 47,XXY Klinefelter's syndrome patients?

BACKGROUND: Contradictory results are available regarding prediction of testicular sperm extraction in 47,XXY patients. This study, therefore, aimed at assessing the availability of testicular sperm and evaluates clinical parameters predicting successful sperm retrieval in azoospermic 47,XXY Klinefelter's syndrome patients. METHODS: Sperm recovery procedures were performed in 50 non-mosaic azoospermic Klinefelter patients. The facial hair pattern and the presence of gynaecomastia in men with successful and unsuccessful sperm recovery were compared using Fisher's exact test. The predictive value of clinical parameters such as age, testicular volume, FSH, FSH:LH ratio, testosterone and androgen sensitivity index (LH x testosterone) for successful testicular sperm retrieval was evaluated using the receiver operating characteristics (ROC) curve analysis. RESULTS: In 24 patients (48%) testicular sperm were recovered. Ninety-four per cent of the men in whom sperm was found had a normal facial hair pattern compared to 93% in whom no sperm was recovered (not significant, NS). Seventeen percent of the men with successful testicular sperm extraction had gynaecomastia compared to 31% of the men with failed testicular sperm extraction (NS). The mean testicular volume of the largest testis in patients with sperm found was 4.2 ml compared to 3.6 ml in patients with no sperm found (NS). The mean FSH and testosterone values in patients with sperm recovered were 31.2 IU/l and 3.1 ng/ml versus 40.4 IU/l (P = 0.04) and 3.2 ng/ml (NS) in patients without sperm recovered. All examined clinical and biological parameters failed to predict the outcome of the testicular sperm extraction using ROC curve analysis. CONCLUSION: As in the general population of men with non-obstructive azoospermia, there are currently no clinical parameters predicting successful sperm retrieval in the subpopulation of patients with non-mosaic Klinefelter syndrome.     

How to assess disease activity in patients with chronic urticaria?

Background:  The current EAACI/GA²LEN/EDF guidelines recommend assessing disease activity in chronic urticaria (CU) by using an established and well-defined symptom score, i.e. the urticaria activity score (UAS), which combines daily wheal numbers and pruritus intensity. However, this UAS has never been formally tested for its suitability in assessing CU activity.
Aim:  To determine the UAS correlation with quality of life (QoL) in CU patients and to compare the UAS to other symptom scores.
Methods:  Chronic urticaria symptoms (wheals, erythema, angioedema, pruritus) were assessed on seven consecutive days in 111 CU patients for their numbers, duration, size, and/or intensity. Quality of life was assessed by using the Dermatology Life Quality Index. Both, urticaria activity and QoL were determined before and after a 3-week period, in which the patients followed a pseudoallergen-low diet.
Results:  Urticaria activity score values correlated positively, albeit weakly, with QoL impairment in CU patients ( r ² = 0.31, P  < 0.05). Also, changes in QoL following a pseudoallergen-low diet were reflected by the changes observed in the UAS ( r ² = 0.30, P  < 0.05). No significant differences were found comparing the QoL correlation of the UAS and other symptom scores combining up to four CU symptom qualities. Quality of life correlation with UAS values increased with the number of days the UAS was assessed and plateaued starting from the fourth consecutive day.
Conclusions:  Our findings back the current guideline recommendations to use the UAS for monitoring disease activity in CU patients. Urticaria activity score mean values of at least four consecutive days should be used.     

Does PGD for aneuploidy screening change the selection of embryos derived from testicular sperm extraction in obstructive and non-obstructive azoospermic men?

BACKGROUND: An increased incidence of aneuploid embryos has been recently described from azoospermic men. The aim of this study was to assess if embryo selection on day 5, based on morphological criteria, would be different from the selection based on PGD for aneuploidy screening (AS) in couples undergoing ICSI for male azoospermia. METHODS: Sixty-two cycles of testicular sperm extraction (TESE)-ICSI with PGD-AS were included in the analysis. Two embryologists, blinded to the PGD-AS results, retrospectively reviewed the available embryology data from day 5 embryos and selected one, two or three embryos to be transferred. These results were compared with the selected embryos based on PGD-AS. RESULTS: A total of 39 cycles from non-obstructive azoospermia (NOA) and 23 cycles from obstructive azoospermia (OA) were retrospectively analysed. If single embryo transfer (SET) had been performed, in 64.8% of the NOA cycles and 54.5% of the OA cycles, no difference in embryo choice would have occurred compared to PGD-AS and in 10.8 and 36.6% of the cycles, respectively, an aneuploid embryo would have been chosen. If double ET (DET) had been performed, in 72.9% of the NOA cycles and 86.5% of the OA cycles, no difference in embryo choice would have occurred compared to PGD-AS and in 2.7 and 4.5% of the cycles, respectively, an aneuploid embryo would have been chosen. If triple ET (TET) had been performed, the outcome would have been the same as for DET. DISCUSSION: Our results suggest that under the terms of an SET policy, the performance of PGD-AS in azoospermia would result in a higher chance of success, as the possibility of selecting a euploid embryo is enhanced.     

How is complementary medicine discussed in oncology? Observing real-life communication between clinicians and patients with advanced cancer

ObjectiveThis study aims to examine the structure of communication about complementary medicine (CM) between patients with cancer and clinicians during oncology consultations.MethodsPreviously, consultations between 29 clinicians and 80 patients with advanced cancer were recorded in six hospitals in the Netherlands. The present study considers a secondary analysis. References to CM during the consultation were coded using a self-developed observational coding scheme.ResultsAt least one reference to CM was observed in 35 out of 80 consultations (44 %), with a total of 73 references. In most cases, CM was initially referred to by patients. Clinicians often did not elaborate on the subject of CM. Relevant aspects related to CM (e.g., safety, effectiveness) were infrequently discussed. Both patients and clinicians showed predominantly neutral to positive attitudes towards CM.ConclusionsThis study shows that patients are still the main initiators of discussions about CM and the topic is not consistently discussed in daily oncology practice.Practice implicationsIf exploration of patients’ interest in CM or its use became routine in oncology practice, it may relieve patients of the burden of introducing the topic, decrease potential risks of CM use and increase access to evidence-based CM for all patients with cancer.     

How do you know if your treatment of problem drinking is successful?

The particular importance of examining the issue of the effectiveness of treatment for problem drinking is based on: (a) the history of a separation of science and practice in the alcohol field; (b) an era of increased accountability for the results of clinical practice. Consideration of the complexities involved in deciding whether treatment makes a difference is followed by an examination of the relative merits of empirical and non-empirical evaluative approaches. Barriers to using knowledge effectively (therapist and cultural) are identified along with the use of knowledge destruction tactics. It is concluded that the most realistic alternative is an empirical approach that uses a wide range of methodologies to bridge the scientist–practitioner divide. © 1998 John Wiley & Sons, Ltd.     

How frequent is varicella-associated pneumonia in children?

Varicella is a frequent though mild infection in children, but it can cause important morbidity in adults. The most frequent complication in adults is varicella pneumonia. However, lower airway complications associated to varicella have been scarcely studied in children. We retrospectively reviewed the clinical records of the children hospitalized for varicella-associated pneumonia in the three public hospitals on the Island of Mallorca. We discovered that 17/213 (8%) children hospitalized for varicella were diagnosed of pneumonia. The rate of hospitalization for varicella complication due to pneumonia was 4.3 cases per 10,000 varicella infections. Only one patient was diagnosed of varicella pneumonia, which accounts for 0.3 cases per 10,000 varicella infections. Nine of 17 (53%) cases were classified as bacterial pneumonia. Statistical differences (p < 0.05) in the median time from rash (5.9 vs. 2.4 days) and fever (4.1 vs. 2.2 days) to admission were observed between bacterial and viral pneumonia. However, outcome differences measured by the median length of stay, need for oxygen, and admission to the intensive care unit were not observed. Varicella pneumonia is a very rare complication of varicella in children. Most of the lower airway infections in the course of varicella are associated to other co-infections.     

Where exactly is the deep inguinal ring in patients with inguinal hernias?

It is difficult to distinguish direct from indirect inguinal hernias on clinical examination. This study attempted to determine an anatomical basis for this finding. Fifty adult patients with primary inguinal hernias were assessed. The position of the deep inguinal ring (DIR) was estimated from the position of the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS) and the pubic tubercle (PT) pre-operatively and then the actual distance from these landmarks was measured intra-operatively. The DIR was actually located at a mean of 41% (95% confidence interval (CI) 26–56%) of the way along the inguinal ligament from the PT towards the ASIS (regression slope 1.203; 95% CI 1.141–1.127), compared with the 50% which would be expected from traditional clinical methodology. The DIR was actually found at a mean of 51% (95% CI 33–69%) of the way along a line from the pubic symphysis to the ASIS (regression slope 1.421; 95% CI 1.343–1.499). Pre-operative estimates of the position of the DIR are not accurate measures of its true position in patients with inguinal hernias. Clinical examination of inguinal hernias cannot rely on a constant position of the DIR to determine whether a hernia is direct or indirect.     

How important is lateral masking in visual search?

Five experiments are presented, providing empirical support of the hypothesis that the sensory phenomenon of lateral masking may explain many well-known visual search phenomena that are commonly assumed to be governed by cognitive attentional mechanisms. Experiment I showed that when the same visual arrays are used in visual search and in lateral masking experiments, the factors (1) number of distractors, (2) distractor density, and (3) search type (conjunction vs disjunction) have the same effect on search times as they have on lateral masking scores. Experiment II showed that when the number of distractors and eccentricity is kept constant in a search task, the effect of reducing density (which reduces the lateral masking potential of distractors on the target) is to strongly reduce the disjunction-conjunction difference. In experiment III, the lateral masking potential of distractors on a target was measured with arrays that typically yield asymmetric search times in visual search studies (a Q among Os vs. an O among Qs). The lateral masking scores showed the same asymmetry. Experiment IV was a visual search study with such asymmetric search arrays in which the number of distractors and eccentricity was kept constant, while manipulating density. Reducing density (i.e., reducing lateral masking) produced a strong reduction of the asymmetry effect. Finally in experiment V, we showed that the data from experiment IV cannot be explained due to a difference between a fine and a coarse grain attentional mechanism. Taken together with eye movement data and error scores from experiment II and with similar findings from the literature, these results suggest that the sensory mechanism of lateral masking could well be a very important (if not the main) factor causing many of the well-known effects that are traditionally attributed to higher level cognitive or attentional mechanisms in visual search.     

How is precision regulated in maintaining trunk posture?

Precision of limb control is associated with increased joint stiffness caused by antagonistic co-activation. The aim of this study was to examine whether this strategy also applies to precision of trunk postural control. To this end, thirteen subjects performed static postural tasks, aiming at a target object with a cursor that responded to 2D trunk angles. By manipulating target dimensions, different levels of precision were imposed in the frontal and sagittal planes. Trunk angle and electromyography (EMG) of abdominal and back muscles were recorded. Repeated measures ANOVAs revealed significant effects of target dimensions on kinematic variability in both movement planes. Specifically, standard deviation (SD) of trunk angle decreased significantly when target size in the same direction decreased, regardless of the precision demands in the other direction. Thus, precision control of trunk posture was directionally specific. However, no consistent effect of precision demands was found on trunk muscle activity, when averaged over time series. Therefore, it was concluded that stiffness regulation by antagonistic co-activation was not used to meet increased precision demands in trunk postural control. Instead, results from additional analyses suggest that precision of trunk angle was controlled in a feedback mode.